NR 602 PRIMARY CARE CHILDBEARING CHILDREARING
FAMILY FINAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Best Rated Questions and
Verified Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Women's Health & Reproductive Primary Care (Best Rated)
Q1: A 22-year-old patient requests long-acting reversible contraception (LARC) and
desires future fertility within 2-3 years. Which option provides rapid return to fertility?
A. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera)
B. Levonorgestrel IUD [CORRECT]
C. Copper IUD
D. Both B and C are correct
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The levonorgestrel IUD provides highly effective contraception with rapid
return to fertility upon removal (within 1 month). While the copper IUD also allows rapid
return, the levonorgestrel IUD offers additional benefits of reduced menstrual bleeding
and cramping. Depo-Provera can delay fertility return for 6-12 months or longer after
discontinuation.
Q2: A 28-year-old patient is prescribed combined oral contraceptives. Which finding in
her history is an absolute contraindication?
A. History of migraine without aura
B. History of migraine with aura [CORRECT]
C. Family history of breast cancer in maternal aunt
D. Irregular menstrual cycles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Migraine with aura is an absolute contraindication to combined hormonal
contraceptives due to significantly increased stroke risk. Migraine without aura is a
relative contraindication. Family history of breast cancer and irregular cycles are not
contraindications.
,Q3: A patient requests emergency contraception 72 hours after unprotected
intercourse. Which option is most effective?
A. Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg (Plan B One-Step)
B. Ulipristal acetate 30 mg (Ella) [CORRECT]
C. Combined estrogen-progestin Yuzpe regimen
D. Copper IUD insertion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ulipristal acetate is more effective than levonorgestrel, especially between
72-120 hours and in overweight women, and it maintains efficacy throughout the 5-day
window. While copper IUD is most effective emergency contraceptive, ulipristal is the
most effective oral option. Yuzpe regimen is least effective.
Q4: A 35-year-old patient is due for cervical cancer screening. She had normal Pap
smear and negative HPV test 3 years ago. Which screening is recommended?
A. Annual Pap smear alone
B. Pap smear with HPV co-testing now [CORRECT]
C. HPV testing alone in 2 more years
D. Colposcopy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per USPSTF/ACS guidelines, women 30-65 should have Pap with HPV
co-testing every 5 years or Pap alone every 3 years. With prior normal co-test at age 32,
she is now due for screening. HPV alone every 5 years is also acceptable but not yet
standard in all settings. Colposcopy is for abnormal results.
Q5: A patient is diagnosed with chlamydia infection. Which treatment is recommended
per CDC guidelines?
A. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily for 7 days
B. Azithromycin 1 g single dose or doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days [CORRECT]
C. Metronidazole 2 g single dose
D. Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 10 days
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: CDC STI Guidelines recommend azithromycin 1 g single dose or doxycycline
100 mg BID for 7 days as first-line for chlamydia. Doxycycline has slightly higher
efficacy in rectal infections. Fluoroquinolones, metronidazole, and amoxicillin are not
effective against Chlamydia trachomatis.
Q6: A 45-year-old patient with regular periods reports hot flashes and vaginal dryness.
Her LMP was 3 months ago. FSH is 45 mIU/mL. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Polycystic ovary syndrome
B. Perimenopause transitioning to menopause [CORRECT]
C. Primary ovarian insufficiency
D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irregular periods, hot flashes, vaginal symptoms, and elevated FSH in a
45-year-old are classic for perimenopause/menopausal transition. FSH >25-30 suggests
diminished ovarian reserve/menopause. PCOS presents earlier with hyperandrogenism;
primary ovarian insufficiency is <40 years; hyperthyroidism would show low TSH.
Q7: A patient is starting menopausal hormone therapy (MHT). Which factor is an
absolute contraindication to systemic estrogen?
A. Family history of breast cancer
B. History of venous thromboembolism (VTE) [CORRECT]
C. Mild hypertension controlled with medication
D. Osteopenia on DEXA scan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: History of VTE is an absolute contraindication to systemic MHT due to
increased thrombosis risk. Family history of breast cancer is relative; controlled
hypertension and osteopenia are indications for therapy. Transdermal estrogen has
lower VTE risk but history of VTE still contraindicates systemic use.
Q8: A 25-year-old patient requests STI screening. She is asymptomatic and has one
male partner. Which screening tests are recommended?
A. Chlamydia and gonorrhea testing only
, B. Chlamydia, gonorrhea, HIV, and syphilis screening [CORRECT]
C. HIV testing only
D. Herpes simplex virus type-specific serology
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CDC recommends annual chlamydia and gonorrhea screening for sexually
active women <25 years, and HIV screening for all patients age 13-64 (opt-out). Syphilis
screening depends on risk factors. HSV serology is not recommended for
asymptomatic patients due to poor predictive value.
Q9: A patient with PCOS desires contraception and management of hirsutism. Which
option addresses both?
A. Copper IUD
B. Combined oral contraceptive pills [CORRECT]
C. Condoms alone
D. Progestin-only implant
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives suppress ovarian androgen production
and increase SHBG, improving hirsutism and acne while providing contraception. They
also regulate irregular cycles in PCOS. Copper IUD and condoms don't address
androgenic symptoms; progestin-only methods may worsen androgenic effects.
Q10: A 50-year-old patient is due for breast cancer screening. She has average risk and
dense breasts. Which screening is recommended?
A. Annual mammography beginning at age 40
B. Biennial mammography from age 50-74 [CORRECT]
C. Annual MRI and mammography
D. Clinical breast exam alone every 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: USPSTF recommends biennial mammography for average-risk women 50-74
years (Grade B). Starting at 40 is individualized decision. Dense breasts warrant
FAMILY FINAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Best Rated Questions and
Verified Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Women's Health & Reproductive Primary Care (Best Rated)
Q1: A 22-year-old patient requests long-acting reversible contraception (LARC) and
desires future fertility within 2-3 years. Which option provides rapid return to fertility?
A. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera)
B. Levonorgestrel IUD [CORRECT]
C. Copper IUD
D. Both B and C are correct
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The levonorgestrel IUD provides highly effective contraception with rapid
return to fertility upon removal (within 1 month). While the copper IUD also allows rapid
return, the levonorgestrel IUD offers additional benefits of reduced menstrual bleeding
and cramping. Depo-Provera can delay fertility return for 6-12 months or longer after
discontinuation.
Q2: A 28-year-old patient is prescribed combined oral contraceptives. Which finding in
her history is an absolute contraindication?
A. History of migraine without aura
B. History of migraine with aura [CORRECT]
C. Family history of breast cancer in maternal aunt
D. Irregular menstrual cycles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Migraine with aura is an absolute contraindication to combined hormonal
contraceptives due to significantly increased stroke risk. Migraine without aura is a
relative contraindication. Family history of breast cancer and irregular cycles are not
contraindications.
,Q3: A patient requests emergency contraception 72 hours after unprotected
intercourse. Which option is most effective?
A. Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg (Plan B One-Step)
B. Ulipristal acetate 30 mg (Ella) [CORRECT]
C. Combined estrogen-progestin Yuzpe regimen
D. Copper IUD insertion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ulipristal acetate is more effective than levonorgestrel, especially between
72-120 hours and in overweight women, and it maintains efficacy throughout the 5-day
window. While copper IUD is most effective emergency contraceptive, ulipristal is the
most effective oral option. Yuzpe regimen is least effective.
Q4: A 35-year-old patient is due for cervical cancer screening. She had normal Pap
smear and negative HPV test 3 years ago. Which screening is recommended?
A. Annual Pap smear alone
B. Pap smear with HPV co-testing now [CORRECT]
C. HPV testing alone in 2 more years
D. Colposcopy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per USPSTF/ACS guidelines, women 30-65 should have Pap with HPV
co-testing every 5 years or Pap alone every 3 years. With prior normal co-test at age 32,
she is now due for screening. HPV alone every 5 years is also acceptable but not yet
standard in all settings. Colposcopy is for abnormal results.
Q5: A patient is diagnosed with chlamydia infection. Which treatment is recommended
per CDC guidelines?
A. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily for 7 days
B. Azithromycin 1 g single dose or doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days [CORRECT]
C. Metronidazole 2 g single dose
D. Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 10 days
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: CDC STI Guidelines recommend azithromycin 1 g single dose or doxycycline
100 mg BID for 7 days as first-line for chlamydia. Doxycycline has slightly higher
efficacy in rectal infections. Fluoroquinolones, metronidazole, and amoxicillin are not
effective against Chlamydia trachomatis.
Q6: A 45-year-old patient with regular periods reports hot flashes and vaginal dryness.
Her LMP was 3 months ago. FSH is 45 mIU/mL. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Polycystic ovary syndrome
B. Perimenopause transitioning to menopause [CORRECT]
C. Primary ovarian insufficiency
D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Irregular periods, hot flashes, vaginal symptoms, and elevated FSH in a
45-year-old are classic for perimenopause/menopausal transition. FSH >25-30 suggests
diminished ovarian reserve/menopause. PCOS presents earlier with hyperandrogenism;
primary ovarian insufficiency is <40 years; hyperthyroidism would show low TSH.
Q7: A patient is starting menopausal hormone therapy (MHT). Which factor is an
absolute contraindication to systemic estrogen?
A. Family history of breast cancer
B. History of venous thromboembolism (VTE) [CORRECT]
C. Mild hypertension controlled with medication
D. Osteopenia on DEXA scan
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: History of VTE is an absolute contraindication to systemic MHT due to
increased thrombosis risk. Family history of breast cancer is relative; controlled
hypertension and osteopenia are indications for therapy. Transdermal estrogen has
lower VTE risk but history of VTE still contraindicates systemic use.
Q8: A 25-year-old patient requests STI screening. She is asymptomatic and has one
male partner. Which screening tests are recommended?
A. Chlamydia and gonorrhea testing only
, B. Chlamydia, gonorrhea, HIV, and syphilis screening [CORRECT]
C. HIV testing only
D. Herpes simplex virus type-specific serology
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CDC recommends annual chlamydia and gonorrhea screening for sexually
active women <25 years, and HIV screening for all patients age 13-64 (opt-out). Syphilis
screening depends on risk factors. HSV serology is not recommended for
asymptomatic patients due to poor predictive value.
Q9: A patient with PCOS desires contraception and management of hirsutism. Which
option addresses both?
A. Copper IUD
B. Combined oral contraceptive pills [CORRECT]
C. Condoms alone
D. Progestin-only implant
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Combined hormonal contraceptives suppress ovarian androgen production
and increase SHBG, improving hirsutism and acne while providing contraception. They
also regulate irregular cycles in PCOS. Copper IUD and condoms don't address
androgenic symptoms; progestin-only methods may worsen androgenic effects.
Q10: A 50-year-old patient is due for breast cancer screening. She has average risk and
dense breasts. Which screening is recommended?
A. Annual mammography beginning at age 40
B. Biennial mammography from age 50-74 [CORRECT]
C. Annual MRI and mammography
D. Clinical breast exam alone every 6 months
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: USPSTF recommends biennial mammography for average-risk women 50-74
years (Grade B). Starting at 40 is individualized decision. Dense breasts warrant
