NR 602 PRIMARY CARE CHILDBEARING CHILDREARING
FAMILY FINAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Questions and Verified
Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Part I: Women's Health & Reproductive Primary Care (2026/2027 Update)
Q1: A 24-year-old presents for her first well-woman visit. She has been sexually active
with one partner for 2 years and uses condoms inconsistently. According to current
USPSTF Grade A or B recommendations, which screening should you prioritize today?
A. Human papillomavirus (HPV) testing alone for cervical cancer screening
B. Shared decision-making discussion about starting mammography due to family
history concerns
C. Chlamydia and gonorrhea nucleic acid amplification testing [CORRECT]
D. Fasting lipid panel screening given her age and risk factors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The USPSTF gives a Grade B recommendation for chlamydia and gonorrhea
screening in all sexually active women under age 25. HPV testing alone is not
recommended to start until age 25 (USPSTF Grade A for primary HPV testing or
,co-testing starting at 25). Mammography screening begins at age 40 per 2024 USPSTF
updates. Lipid screening in low-risk women typically starts at age 35 for men and 45 for
women unless risk factors exist.
Q2: Your 32-year-old patient with well-controlled epilepsy on lamotrigine requests
contraception. She smokes 5 cigarettes daily. Which method offers the most effective
pregnancy prevention without significantly altering her antiepileptic drug levels?
A. Combined oral contraceptive pills containing 30 mcg ethinyl estradiol
B. Levonorgestrel 52mg intrauterine device [CORRECT]
C. Transdermal contraceptive patch with weekly changes
D. Ethynodiol diacetate 1mg/35 mcg oral formulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 52mg levonorgestrel IUD provides highly effective contraception without
hepatic enzyme interactions. Estrogen-containing methods (pills, patch) are
contraindicated in women over 35 who smoke (CDC MEC Category 3/4). Lamotrigine
levels can be affected by estrogen-containing contraceptives, potentially reducing
seizure control.
Q3: A 28-year-old G0 presents requesting the most effective reversible contraceptive
available. She has heavy menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea but no other medical
conditions. After counseling, she remains uncertain. Which statement best represents
shared decision-making for this patient?
,A. "The implant is 99.9% effective, but I recommend the copper IUD since you want
non-hormonal options."
B. "Given your heavy bleeding, the 52mg levonorgestrel IUD reduces bleeding by 90% at
one year and is as effective as sterilization." [CORRECT]
C. "Since you might want pregnancy within two years, permanent sterilization is your
best option."
D. "Depo-Provera is ideal because it requires only annual injections and preserves future
fertility immediately."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 52mg LNG-IUD is highly effective (0.1-0.4% failure rate), reduces
menstrual bleeding significantly, and treats dysmenorrhea. The copper IUD would
worsen her bleeding. Sterilization is irreversible and inappropriate for a nulliparous
patient unsure about future fertility. Depo-Provera requires quarterly injections, not
annual, and fertility return can be delayed 6-18 months.
Q4: During a well-woman visit, your 45-year-old patient with average breast cancer risk
asks about screening mammography. According to the 2024 USPSTF updated
recommendation, what do you advise?
A. Begin biennial screening mammography now and continue through age 74
[CORRECT]
B. Start annual mammography immediately and add breast MRI given her age
, C. Continue clinical breast exams only until age 50, then begin mammography
D. Offer screening mammography only if she has first-degree relatives with breast
cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The USPSTF 2024 updated recommendation (Grade B) advises biennial
screening mammography starting at age 40 for average-risk women, continuing through
age 74. Annual screening is not the USPSTF recommendation (though some specialty
societies differ). Clinical breast exam alone is insufficient. Family history modifies risk
but screening begins at 40 regardless.
Q5: A 19-year-old college student presents with dysuria and vaginal discharge. Physical
exam reveals mucopurulent cervical discharge and cervical motion tenderness. NAAT
testing is positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. What is the appropriate management per
current CDC STI guidelines?
A. Azithromycin 1g orally single dose and return for test of cure in 3 weeks
B. Doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 7 days [CORRECT]
C. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM single dose and azithromycin 1g orally
D. Metronidazole 2g orally single dose and partner notification within 30 days
Correct Answer: B
FAMILY FINAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Questions and Verified
Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Part I: Women's Health & Reproductive Primary Care (2026/2027 Update)
Q1: A 24-year-old presents for her first well-woman visit. She has been sexually active
with one partner for 2 years and uses condoms inconsistently. According to current
USPSTF Grade A or B recommendations, which screening should you prioritize today?
A. Human papillomavirus (HPV) testing alone for cervical cancer screening
B. Shared decision-making discussion about starting mammography due to family
history concerns
C. Chlamydia and gonorrhea nucleic acid amplification testing [CORRECT]
D. Fasting lipid panel screening given her age and risk factors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The USPSTF gives a Grade B recommendation for chlamydia and gonorrhea
screening in all sexually active women under age 25. HPV testing alone is not
recommended to start until age 25 (USPSTF Grade A for primary HPV testing or
,co-testing starting at 25). Mammography screening begins at age 40 per 2024 USPSTF
updates. Lipid screening in low-risk women typically starts at age 35 for men and 45 for
women unless risk factors exist.
Q2: Your 32-year-old patient with well-controlled epilepsy on lamotrigine requests
contraception. She smokes 5 cigarettes daily. Which method offers the most effective
pregnancy prevention without significantly altering her antiepileptic drug levels?
A. Combined oral contraceptive pills containing 30 mcg ethinyl estradiol
B. Levonorgestrel 52mg intrauterine device [CORRECT]
C. Transdermal contraceptive patch with weekly changes
D. Ethynodiol diacetate 1mg/35 mcg oral formulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 52mg levonorgestrel IUD provides highly effective contraception without
hepatic enzyme interactions. Estrogen-containing methods (pills, patch) are
contraindicated in women over 35 who smoke (CDC MEC Category 3/4). Lamotrigine
levels can be affected by estrogen-containing contraceptives, potentially reducing
seizure control.
Q3: A 28-year-old G0 presents requesting the most effective reversible contraceptive
available. She has heavy menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhea but no other medical
conditions. After counseling, she remains uncertain. Which statement best represents
shared decision-making for this patient?
,A. "The implant is 99.9% effective, but I recommend the copper IUD since you want
non-hormonal options."
B. "Given your heavy bleeding, the 52mg levonorgestrel IUD reduces bleeding by 90% at
one year and is as effective as sterilization." [CORRECT]
C. "Since you might want pregnancy within two years, permanent sterilization is your
best option."
D. "Depo-Provera is ideal because it requires only annual injections and preserves future
fertility immediately."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The 52mg LNG-IUD is highly effective (0.1-0.4% failure rate), reduces
menstrual bleeding significantly, and treats dysmenorrhea. The copper IUD would
worsen her bleeding. Sterilization is irreversible and inappropriate for a nulliparous
patient unsure about future fertility. Depo-Provera requires quarterly injections, not
annual, and fertility return can be delayed 6-18 months.
Q4: During a well-woman visit, your 45-year-old patient with average breast cancer risk
asks about screening mammography. According to the 2024 USPSTF updated
recommendation, what do you advise?
A. Begin biennial screening mammography now and continue through age 74
[CORRECT]
B. Start annual mammography immediately and add breast MRI given her age
, C. Continue clinical breast exams only until age 50, then begin mammography
D. Offer screening mammography only if she has first-degree relatives with breast
cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The USPSTF 2024 updated recommendation (Grade B) advises biennial
screening mammography starting at age 40 for average-risk women, continuing through
age 74. Annual screening is not the USPSTF recommendation (though some specialty
societies differ). Clinical breast exam alone is insufficient. Family history modifies risk
but screening begins at 40 regardless.
Q5: A 19-year-old college student presents with dysuria and vaginal discharge. Physical
exam reveals mucopurulent cervical discharge and cervical motion tenderness. NAAT
testing is positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. What is the appropriate management per
current CDC STI guidelines?
A. Azithromycin 1g orally single dose and return for test of cure in 3 weeks
B. Doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 7 days [CORRECT]
C. Ceftriaxone 500mg IM single dose and azithromycin 1g orally
D. Metronidazole 2g orally single dose and partner notification within 30 days
Correct Answer: B
