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NSG 500 Exam 4: Advanced Health Assessment - Wilkes University Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale

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NSG 500 Exam 4: Advanced Health Assessment - Wilkes University Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale

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NSG 500 Exam 4: Advanced Health Assessment - Wilkes
University Updated and Latest Questions and Correct
Answers with Rationale
1. A 45-year-old female presents with sharp right upper quadrant pain that radiates to her right shoulder

after eating a fatty meal. During the physical exam, the nurse practitioner notes a sudden halt in inspiration

when palpating the gallbladder area. Which maneuver is being described?

A. McBurney sign


B. Rovsing sign


C. Psoas sign


D. Murphy sign


Correct Answer: D


Rationale: The scenario describes a positive Murphy sign, which is indicative of acute cholecystitis. This

maneuver involves palpating the right upper quadrant while the patient takes a deep breath. A positive

result occurs when the patient experiences sharp pain and stops inhaling. This finding is highly specific

for gallbladder inflammation compared to other abdominal signs. Understanding these physical

maneuvers is essential for accurate gastrointestinal assessment and diagnosis.


2. A patient’s laboratory results show a Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) of 72 fL (normal: 80–100 fL).

Which of the following conditions is most likely based on this microcytic finding?

A. Vitamin B12 deficiency


B. Folate deficiency


C. Iron deficiency anemia


D. Alcoholic liver disease

,Correct Answer: C


Rationale: A low MCV indicates microcytic red blood cells, which are commonly seen in iron deficiency

anemia. Vitamin B12 and folate deficiencies typically result in macrocytic cells with a high MCV. Iron

deficiency is the most frequent cause of microcytosis in clinical practice. The clinician must interpret

these indices to narrow down the differential diagnosis for anemia. Integrating laboratory data with

clinical history is vital for effective patient management.


3. During a neurological exam, the clinician notes that the patient’s right pupil is fixed and dilated, and the

eye is deviated ‘down and out.’ Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

A. Cranial Nerve II (Optic)


B. Cranial Nerve VI (Abducens)


C. Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)


D. Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)


Correct Answer: D


Rationale: Cranial Nerve III controls most extraocular movements and pupillary constriction. A ‘down

and out’ position suggests that the superior oblique and lateral rectus muscles are unopposed due to CN

III paralysis. The fixed and dilated pupil indicates loss of parasympathetic innervation through this nerve.

This clinical presentation requires urgent evaluation for potential intracranial pressure or aneurysms.

Mastery of cranial nerve functions is a cornerstone of advanced neurological assessment.


4. A 22-year-old athlete reports a ‘pop’ in the knee followed by immediate swelling after a pivoting injury.

Which physical exam test is the most sensitive for assessing an Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) tear?

A. McMurray test


B. Lachman test

, C. Valgus stress test


D. Varus stress test


Correct Answer: B


Rationale: The Lachman test is widely considered the most sensitive clinical test for detecting ACL

deficiency. It is performed with the knee in 20 to 30 degrees of flexion while pulling the tibia forward. In

contrast, the McMurray test is used to assess for meniscal tears rather than ligamentous stability. Valgus

and varus stress tests evaluate the medial and lateral collateral ligaments respectively. Accurate

musculoskeletal assessment depends on selecting the most evidence-based maneuvers for the suspected

injury.


5. A patient presents with fatigue, cold intolerance, and weight gain. Laboratory findings reveal an elevated

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) and a low Free T4 level. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Primary Hyperthyroidism


B. Secondary Hyperthyroidism


C. Subclinical Hypothyroidism


D. Primary Hypothyroidism


Correct Answer: D


Rationale: Primary hypothyroidism is characterized by an elevated TSH as the pituitary attempts to

stimulate a failing thyroid gland. The low Free T4 confirms that the thyroid is unable to produce sufficient

hormones. Clinical symptoms like fatigue and weight gain support this metabolic slowdown. Subclinical

hypothyroidism would show an elevated TSH with a normal Free T4 level. Interpreting the relationship

between the pituitary and target organs is essential for endocrine diagnosis.

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