California Optometry Laws & Regulations Exam V2 2026/2027 | State Board of Optometry | Jurisprudence Assessment | Verified Questions & Answers

California Optometry Laws & Regulations Exam V2 2026/2027 | State Board of Optometry | Jurisprudence Assessment | Verified Questions & Answers Q: What are the 7 misdemeanors pertaining to the use of licenses? Answer 1. Displaying/possessing a cancelled, suspended, or fake/fraudulent license or any document simulating one 2. Lending license to another 3. Displaying license that wasn't issued to you 4. Failing to surrender license that has been cancelled/suspended/revoked 5. Knowingly permitting unlawful use of license 6. Reproducing linces 7. Buying or receiving forged/counterfeit license Q: It is a __________ for any person to engage in any conduct which subverts or attempts to subvert any licensing exam or administration of an exam. Answer misdemeanor Q: T/F. It is a felony when a person conspires with an unlicensed person to allow his/her license to be used by the unlicensed person or acts as his or her agent or partner. Answer False- it is a misdemeanor Q: Refusal to perform licensed activity is subject to __________ _______ if a licensed person refuses to provide services b/c of race, color, sex, religion, ancestry, disability, marital status or national origin. Answer disciplinary actions Q: What are the 4 grounds/acts that provide for denial of licenses? Answer 1. Convicted of crime related to qualifications, functions, or duties of profession 2. Done any act involving dishonesty, fraud or deceit w/ intent to benefit self or injury another 3. Knowingly lying or omitting fact in application 4. Any other act which are grounds for suspension/revocation Q: T/F. License can be denied solely on basis of felony conviction even if applicant has certificate of rehab. Answer False- can't be Q: T/F. A license can be denied, suspended, or revoked solely on the basis of character, reputation, personality, or habits. Answer False- can't be Q: T/F. The board may suspend/revoke license for conviction of crime not related to profession. Answer False- has to be related to profession Q: T/F. The board may suspend/revoke license for not being in compliance with a child support order or judgement. Answer True Q: T/F. The board may suspend/revoke license for subversion of licensing examination. Answer True Q: T/F. The board may suspend/revoke license for securing license by fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation. Answer True Q: T/F. The board may suspend/revoke license for false statements or omission of material facts regarding another person's application. Answer True Q: T/F. The board may publicly reprove a licentiate for any act constituting grounds for suspension or revocation of license. Answer True (reprove means to censor or correct) Q: It is prohibited to dispense, prescribe, or sell eyeglasses which are not made of shatter resistant lenses or non-flammable frames to whom? Answer Monocular pts Law enforcement Firefighters 18 yo Q: T/F. Polycarbonate lenses are required for monocular pts, law enforcement, firefighters, and kids. Answer False- No specific requirement for polycarb. Shatter-resistant lenses include case-hardened lenses, laminated glass, resin lenses, or other shatter-resistant materials. Polycarb is std of care but is not reqd by law. Q: T/F. A practitioner, unless informed by person obtaining the eyeglasses or has personal knowledge of age or occupation, is not required to conduct an investigation of the person's occupation in determining if shatter-resistant lenses are required. Answer True Q: T/F. Sale, procurement, or use of a professional degree not legally obtained is unlawful. Answer True Q: T/F. It is unlawful to willfully make a false statement in a material regard or engaging in impersonation during licensing exams. Answer True Q: Violations involving fraudulent use of documents or records are considered a __________ and are punishable with a fine of $__________-___________ or imprisonment in a state prison, and other possible administrative action. Answer felony; Q: T/F. Practitioners may offer, deliver, receive or accept any rebate, refund, commission, preference, discount or other consideration of money or otherwise as compensation or inducement for referring pts. Answer False- it is unlawful Q: What is the punishment for violating anti-kickback and fee-splitting? Answer imprisonment in county jail, for not more than 1 year, or in state prison or by a fine up to $10,000 or both What is the Federal-Stark Law against self-referrals? Answer It is unlawful to refer to a health care provider in which practitioner or immediate family members have a financial interest. Referral or consultation from an organization in which licensee has financial interest with is permitted if financial interest is disclosed in writing. What constitutes "significant financial interest?" Answer $5,000 or 5% of the whole T/F. It is unlawful to make false, fraudulent, misleading or deceptive statments or claims such as misrepresentation of fact, failure to disclose material facts, create false or unjustified expectations of favorable results, presenting fees w/o fully and specifically disclosing all variables, and making other representations or implications which cause an ordinary prudent person to misunderstand or be deceived. true T/F. Any price advertisement must be exact but can include words such as "as low as," "and up to," "lowest prices," or statements of discount, premiums, or gifts. False- cannot include these words to be exact What are some things that advertising may include? Name, address, office hrs Languages spoken Certifications Provisions of service under insurance/healthcare plan Degrees received, names of schools Publications authored by practitioner Teaching positions- current and former Affiliation w/ hospitals or clinics Fees for services or products and method of pmt Personal picture, pics of facility Description of products advertised Any other factual info T/F. The board has the power to prevent truthful, non-deceptive or other forms of advertisement. False What is the punishment for advertisement violations? suspension or revocation of license, also a misdemeanor and punishable by imprisonment in county jail not exceeding 6 mos, fine up to $2,500, or both T/F. Optometrists may lease space from an optician or health plan and can be employed by them. False- can lease from them but can't be employed by them In a lease from an optician, the lease term cannot be less than ____ year(s) and cannot be terminated for a reason that interferes with the practice of optometry. 1 T/F. Lease payments can be based on number of eye exams performed, prescriptions written, patient referrals, or the sale or promotion of products of an optician, optical company, or health plan. False- CANNOT be T/F. ODs have exclusive control over their schedule, how many pts they see, and the time interval for each pt. TRUE :) T/F. The OD has exclusive control over the selection and supervision of optometric staff. TRUE :) T/F. The OD has exclusive control over the fees charged, exam procedures, and treatments provided. TRUE :) T/F. The OD must contract with whatever health plans an optician would like to accept if they are under a lease. False- the OD is free to contract w/ whichever health plans he/she wants The OD's records are the sole property of who? the OD T/F. The OD leased space must be definite and distinct from that of the other occupants and shall have the OD's name and the word "optometrist" prominently displayed in connection therewith. true T/F. The OD's leased space must be accessible to the OD after hours or in the case of an emergency, subject to the facility's general accessibility. true T/F. To encourage prompt payment of health or medical claims, health care providers are expressly authorized to grant discounts in health or medical care claims when payment is made promptly. True T/F. Healthcare providers cannot grant discounts for health or medical care provided to any pt the provider reasonably believes is not eligible for, or is not entitled to insurance reimbursement, coverage under Medi-Cal, or coverage by a health care service plan for the health or medical care provided. False- they can A practitioner shall disclose his/her name and license status on a name tag in at least ___ point font. 18 T/F. A board may cite or fine a currently licensed practitioner if he/she is in default on a Dept of HHS education loan or Health Education Assistance Loan. True Excessive prescription or excessive administration of drops or treatment, or diagnostic procedures as determined by standards of care is ___________ ____________. unprofessional conduct Under what conditions is a health care licentiate not required to dispense drugs and devices legally prescribed or ordered for a patient? Licentiate determines drug or device would cause harmful interaction or adversely affect a pt's medical condition or drug/device is not in stock A board must create and maintain a central file containing all relevant info regarding licensee including what? -any conviction of a crime constituting unprofessional conduct When is a central file purged of a complaint? if Board has failed to act on the complaint/report in 5 yrs or if found complaint/report to be w/o merit Every insurance and every licensed person must report withing _____ days of the Board every settlement or arbitration award of over $3000 of a claim or action for damages of death or personal injury. 30 What is insurance fraud? if a person provides false information to an insurance company while making a claim or submitting an insurance application When can a license be reinstated after being revoked or suspended for mental illness or physical illness? When competent evidence of the absence or control of the condition is presented. Terms and conditions may be imposed such as addtl professional training and exam, reqmt for continual treatment, and/or restrict/limit type, scope, or extent of practice. Records of proceedings resulting in no action by the board are kept confidential and destroyed after ____ years. 5 A duly licensed ____________ can serve as a CLIA director of a laboratory and may be able to perform only clinical laboratory tests as authorized. (They must register as lab director before performing CLIA-waved tests). OD T/F. A licensed physician and surgeon practicing in the specialty of ophthalmology may be employed by an optometrist. True Who has the authority to prescribe ophthalmic or contact lenses, or plano contact lenses? a physician and surgeon or optometrist What is a prescription lens? any device that alters or changes the visual powers of the human eye or any plano contact lenses What must be included on a spectacle lens Rx? pt's name dioptric power of lens issue and exp date name, address, license #, signature of practitioner The exp date fro spec lenses shall not be less than ___-____ years from date of issuance unless by pt hx or circumstance, such as presence of visual abnormalities related to ocular or systemic dz, there is reasonable probability of change earlier than that. 2-4 T/F. Prescriber must orally inform pt of exp date. treu When can an expired Rx be filled? loss, breakage, or damage The exp date for a CL shall not be less than ___ year(s) and not more than ___ year(s) from date of issuance unless reasonable probability of change earlier than that. 1, 2 T/F. The prescriber shall provide pt with a copy of the CL Rx upon completion of the eye exam or CL fitting process. true Under which conditions does the prescriber have discretion in releasing CL Rx? RGP lenses, keratoconus lenses, and other lenses that are not mass produced How does federal law differ from state law concerning release of CL Rxs? Under federal law there is no discretion- prescriber must release Rx for all lenses whether requested or not What must be included on the CL Rx? name of manufacturer, trade name of private label brand, and if applicable trade name of equivalent national brand When does the CL fitting process begin and end? after the initial comprehensive eye exam when an appropriate fit has been achieved or prescriber determines no change in Rx for previous wearer T/F. A prescriber can charge a fee as a condition for releasing the CL Rx. False- however they can charge a fee for verifying ophthalmic goods obtained elsewhere T/F. A precriber may not condition availability of services on requirement to purchase CL from prescriber. true Federal law says that practitioners cannot charge for ___________ lenses required for fitting but can charge for _____________ lenses. standard; specialty T/F. A prescriber can waive or disclaim liability/responsibility for the accuracy of ophthalmic goods/services dispensed by another seller. False- but this does not impose liability on a prescriber for goods/services dispensed by others Who determines standards for ophthalmic devices? American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Violation of ANSI is considered a ____________. misdemeanor What are the procedures that may be performed by a registered optician? fitting, adjusting or dispensing CLs acting on advice, direction, and responsibility of the prescriber It shall be considered ___________ ____________ practice to represent that CL may be obtained w/o confirmation of a valid Rx or to offer for sale plano CLs. deceptive marketing An assistant in any setting {also an unlicensed new OD graduate} under the direct responsibility and supervision of the physician and surgeon or OD may fit Rx lenses and may also do what other procedures? -prep clients for exam -perform noninvasive testing of VA, pupils, EOMs -automated VF testing -photos and digital imaging -tonometry -lensometry -nonsubjective AR with subj ref performed by OD/OMD -administer drops -perform pachymetry, keratometry, A/B scans, and electrodiagnostic testing A person located outside CA may ship, mail, or deliver in any manner, replacement CL at retail to a pt in CA if registered with the State Board of Optometry of CA and if pursuant to a valid Rx. When CLs are supplied in this manner, what must be done? The pt must be warned to consult with the prescribing Dr if any eye problem occurs Nonresident CL sellers must provide what 3 things that are dedicated to providers and their authorized agents for Rx verification? 1. toll-free phone # 2. fax # 3. email address It shall be _________ __________ practice to publish, advertise or otherwise represent that CL may be obtained w/o confirmation of a valid Rx. deceptive marketing What are the conditions required for sale of CLs? Must have receipt of written Rx or copy of written Rx and be sold in quantities consistent with the Rx ep date and std manufacturer/vendor packaging If a written Rx for CLs is not available, what can be done? the seller must communicate by phone, fax, or email with the prescriber prior to selling, shipping, mailing or delivering any lens Upon receiving an rx verification from a seller, how long does a prescriber have to confirm, alter, or deny the request. one business day or 2pm of the next business day, whichever is sooner (Federal law requires 8 business hrs) T/F. A seller can alter any aspects of the CL specs or substitute a different manufacturer, brand, or other physical property of the lens. False- they can't What is the definition of a dispensing optician? individuals, corporations, or firms who either singly or in combination w/ others, take facial measurements, and fit and adjust lenses and frames. T/F. Dispensing opticians must be registered with the State Board of Optometry. True T/F. It is permissible for a registered dispensing optician to advertise the furnishing of, or to furnish, the services of an OD or a physician and surgeon, to directly employ an OD pr physician and surgeon for the purpose of any exam or treatment of the eyes, or to duplicate or change lenses w/ o a Rx or order from a person licensed to issue the same. False- it is unlawful for opticians to do these things All licensed optometrists in a setting w/ a registered dispensing optician shall report the business relationship to whom? the State Board of Optometry Any health plan that previously employed ODs must prove that they no longer employ an OD by what date? Jan 1 2019 T/F. There is no prohibition against the sale of "plano" goggles, sunglasses, colored lenses, or occupational protective eyewear. True Who may fit and adjust spectacle lenses or contact lenses? Only a registered spectacle lens or contact lens dispenser or an individual under the direct responsibility and supervision of a registerd dispenser To be licensed, what does a CL fitter/dispenser have to do? pass the CL Registry Exam given by the Ntl Committee of CL Examiners After completing the fitting of CL, but not more than _______ days after receipt of the Rx, a registered CL dispenser must direct the pt to return to prescriber for evaluation. 60 T/F. A technician under the direct responsibility and supervision of an OD/MD may fit CLs and is exempt from the CL fitter article. True How is advertising defined under the Optometric Practice Act? includes any and all means of communication to bring attn to practice of opt, or prescribing, fitting or sale of lenses, frames, or other accessories How does the Optometric Practice Act define an ophthalmic lens? as having a spherical, cylindrical, or prismatic value How does the Optometric Practice Act define a trial frame and test lens? any frame/lens used in testing the eye and not sold to clients An OD must keep pt records for a minimum of ____ years from the date treatment is completed; for a minor records must be kept a minimum of ___ years or until pt reaches age____. 7, 7, 19 There is in the dpt for consumer affairs a State Board of Optometry in consisting of ___ members, 5 of whom shall be _____________ members and one of the ________ members shall be an individual registered as a __________ ________. 11, public, nonpublic, dispensing optician How many members of the board shall constitute a quorum? 6 Who can be appointed as a member of the Board? (not including public members and dispensing optician) appointed only from persons who are registered as optometrists in the State of CA and actually engaged in the practice of optometry at the time of appointment or who are members of the faculty of a school of optometry T/F. Public members of the board shall be a licentiate of the board or any other board under this division. False- they shall not be T/F. Stockholders in/owners of/members of the board of trustees of any school of optometry are eligible for membership in the board. False- they're not T/F. Anyone who is financially interested, directly or indirectly, in any concern manufacturing or dealing in optical supplies at wholesale is not eligible for membership in the board. True No person shall serve as a member of the board for more than ____ consecutive terms. 2 No more than ___ faculty members of schools of optometry may be on the board at any one time. 2 Each member of the board shall hold office for a term of ____ years. 4 The _________ shall appoint3 of the public members, 5 ODs, and the registered dispensing optician member of the board. Governor The Senate Committee on Rules and the Speaker of the Assembly shall both appoint a _______ member of the board. public What are the 3 positions on the board and how long do they serve? President, VP, Secretary- each serves 1 year or until successor is elected What do board members receive as payment? per diem, traveling, and other necessary expense How many meetings must be held by the board annually? at least one T/F. The board may visit and accredit schools and colleges of optometry providing a sufficient program of study. true T/F. The board may adopt regulations prescribing minimum standards for optometric services, equipment, and sanitary conditions. true T/F. The board may adopt, amend, or repeal rules and regulations relating to price fixing or advertising of commodities. False- they may not The board must keep separate complaints- before and after TPA enacted in ___________. 1996 Who does the board employ for legal counsel? attorney general It is unlawful to practice, display, or advertise or hold himself as optometrist without certificate. What consists of prima facie evidence for practice of optometry? test cards, test lenses, or trial frame What does the practice of optometry include? Prevention/diagnosis/treatment/management of disorders and dysfunctions of the visual system, provision of opt habilitative or rehab services, etc. What are some conditions that must be co-managed with the treating surgeon? post surgical ocular inflammation, post surgical pain ODs may treat nonrecurrent nongranulomatous idiopathic iritis and glaucoma in patients older than _____. 18 ODs may treat ____________ ocular surface disease and dry eye disease. nonmalignant T/F. ODs can treat hypotrichosis and blepharitis. true Which types of glaucoma can ODs treat in pts over 18? open angle, pigmentary and exfoliation, steroid-induced TPA certified ODs may use or prescribe, including all rational off-label purposes, all of the following TPAs: 1. Topical pharm agents for exam of eyes for dz or pathological condition, including but not limited to topical miotics 2. topical lubricants 3. topical anti-allergy agents 4. topical and oral anti-inflammatories 5. topical antibiotics 6. topical hyperosmotics 7. topical and oral anti-glc agents 8. nonRx meds for rational tx of ocular disorders 9. oral antihistamines 10. Rx oral NSAIDs 11. oral antibiotics 12. topical and oral antivirals 13. oral analgesics- not controlled substances 14. codeine and hydrocodone with compounds and tramadol- limited to 3 days When using topical steroids, consult with OMD if condition is worse in ___ days after diagnosis. 21 A TPA certified OD may perform which procedures? 1. Corneal scraping and culture 2. debridement 3. mechanical epilation 4. collection of blood by skin puncture for diabetes 5. suture removal w/ consultation of physician 6. tx or removal of sebaceous cysts by expression 7. oral fluorescein administration for diab retinopathy 8. auto-injector for anaphylaxis 9. order smears, cultures, sensitivities, CBC, mycobacterial culture, acid fast stain, urinalysis, x rays 10. clinical lab test or exam under CLIA 11. punctual occlussion 12. Rx of diagnostic or therapeutic CL 13. remval of FBs w/o a scalpel 14. lacrimal dilation and irrigation 15. IV injection for angiography at direction of OMD 16. skin testing for allergies limited to superficial layer 17. use of noninvasive medical devices or tech Which types of corneal foreign bodies can be removed by ODs? nonperforating, no deeper than mid stroma, doesn't require surgical repair ODs can perform lacrimal D&I on which pts? pts over 12 years, after certification- excluding probing for any age For glaucoma certification for licensees who completed a didactic course of not less than 24 hrs in the dx, pharmacological, and other tx and mgmt of glc, what do they have to submit? proof of satisfactory completion of the case mgmt reqmts for certification established by the board Use of any topical or oral TPA (not a controlled substance) or noninvasive medical device or not already expressly authorized is permitted if what 2 conditions are met? 1. it has received FDA approval for the dx or tx of a condition authorized by this chapter 2. approved by the board of opt through regulation for the rational tx of a condition authorized by this chapter What are the 3 things that are NOT authorized by subsection f? 1. Any TPA, medical device, or technology involving cutting, altering, or otherwise infiltrating human tissue by any means other than that authorized in this law 2. any clinical lab test or imaging study not authorized by paragraphs 1 to 16 inclusive of subdivision d 3. tx of any dz or condtn that could not be treated by an OD before Jan 1 2018 What 4 things must an OD doe to be able to administer immunizations? 1. complete immunization training program endorsed by CDC that includes hands on injection technique, clincal eval of indications and contraindications and recognition and tx of emergency reactions 2. be certified in BLS 3. comply with all state and federal recordkeeping and reporting requirements 4. apply for immunization certificate on board-approved form Which immunizations can be given by ODs? influenza, herpes zoster virus, pneumococcus for pts 18+ Other than Rx for ophthalmic devices, any dispensing of a therapeutic pharmaceutical agent by an OD shall be _______________ _____________. without charge The practice of optometry doesn't include sugery. however, the OD has the authority to use diagnostic _______________ and __________ technology. laser; ultrasound What is required for an OD to be able to practice telehealth? must obtain verbal and informed consent from pt or surrogate and must abide by all existing state and federal laws regarding confidentiality What must be done when treating steroid-induced glc if the prescriber of the steroid did not refer to an OD? OD must inform prescriber How should an OD handle an emergency of angle closure? OD shall stabilize, if possible, and immediately refer a pt with an acute angle closure attack to an OMD T/F. An OD diagnosing and treating eye dz shall be heald to the same standard of care to which physicians ans surgeons and osteopathic physicians and surgeons are held. true What shall be done in a situation or condition that is beyond the OD's scope of practice? an OD shall consult with and if necessary, refer to appropriate health care provider and info shall be documented in the pt record T/F. A technician may use optical devices for VT unsupervised. False- must be supervised by OD or MD Who is exempt from licensing in the practice of optometry? undergrad and grad students of optometry if activities/practice are confined to the clinical education and clinical dept of a school or college of optometry; also persons from other states/countries for specified (temporary) periods of time if for educational purpose in a clinical dept How should goggles, sunglasses, colored glasses, or occupational eye-protective devices with no refractive value be sold? as ready to wear merchandise Those enrolled in school of opt on or after Sep 1, 1997 must show evidence of education in ______________ _________ detection, and detection of _____________ and _______ __________ abuse. child abuse; alcoholism; chemical substance A passing grade on an exam is ____% in every section or test. May take succeeding exams for the next ____ years only in failed sections. 75; 5 When may certificate of registration be issued to OD licensed in another state? When full-time faculty member if associate professor or higher, passes state law exam and meets DPA/TPA and CE reqmts What is required for licensure by endorsement? OD is in active practice in good standing for at least 5000 hrs in 5 out of 7 years of licensure and meets all DPA/TPA/CE reqmts and passes the state jurisprudence exam When may exemption/extension for CE reqmts be granted? reasons of health, military service, or other good cause (must submit proof of compliance) Every OD is encouraged to take ____________ courses as part of CE. pharmacology T/F. CPR certification is required as of 2006. False- no longer required as of 2006 What is the CE requirement for a TPA certified OD? complete 50 hrs of CE every 2 years- 35 shall be on dx, tx, mgmt of ocular dz in any combination of: glc (10 hrs), ocular infections, inflammation and topical steroids, systemic meds, pain meds How is "temporary practice" defined? practice away from the principal practice for not more than 5 days in a 30-day period or not more than 36 days in a calendar year What must an OD do to engage in practice at a health facility or residential care facility? the OD must maintain a primary business office separate from that facility that is open to the public T/F. If an OD has more than one office evidence of registration must be posted in each office. true What must be included on a receipt when a patient makes a payment? his/her place of practice, number of certificate, description of goods/services furnished, and amt charged What 5 conditions are required for the board to issue a permit to practice under a different name? 1. Place is owned or leased and entirely controlled by applicant- except in a community clinic 2. Name of practice not deceptive and contains words "optometry" or "optometric" 3. Name of all ODs practicing in that location must be displayed in a conspicuous place and in any advertisements 4. No charges pending which could result in revocation/suspension of license 5. Permit may be revoked at any time with cause A(n) _____________ ____________ exam may be required if licensee unable to practice opt with reasonable skill and safety to pts as evidenced by: single incidence of gross negligence, pattern of inappropriate prescribing, act of incompetence or negligence causing death or serious injury, and pattern of substandard care. professional competency T/F. It is illegal fro opticians to advertise the availability of services by ODs or OMDs. True How is "gross negligence" defined? an extreme departure from the ordinary standard of conduct, as an entire failure to exercise care, to justify the belief that there was an indifference to the interest and welfare of others, which raises a presumption of conscious indifference to consequences. There is a State Optometry Fund in the State Treasury for all money collected under the Practice Act. The fund shall not maintain a reserve balance greater than ________ __________ of operating budget. six months When does a license expire? on the last day of the holder's birth month after its original issue and thereafter every 2 years if not renewed What must you do to renew a license older than 3 years? can't have any conditions leading to suspension/revocation and have to pass NBEO part 3 again The board shall issue a __________ _____________ to an OD who holds a current active license and is retired from practice. The holder of such a license is exempt from CE and renewal reqmts and must not engage in the practice of optometry. Retired license The Board shall issue a ______________________________________ to an OD who is in retired status and provides voluntary, unpaid optometric services at health fairs, vision screenings, and public service programs. License with Retired Volunteer Service How is "dispense" defined? the furnishing of drugs or devices directly to the pt or upon the Rx of a physician, dentist, optometrist, podiatrist, or veterinarian