NSG 3850 Exam 1: Pathophysiology 2 with over
100+ questions Answers. (2025)
24124735
Section 1: Immunity & Hypersensitivity (Questions 1–20)
1. A patient with a history of severe allergic reaction to penicillin develops hives,
wheezing, and hypotension within minutes of receiving IV ampicillin. This reaction is most
consistent with which type of hypersensitivity?
• A) Type I
• B) Type II
• C) Type III
• D) Type IV
Answer: A) Type I
Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated, rapid (minutes), and involves mast cell
degranulation. Manifestations include urticaria (hives), bronchospasm (wheezing), and
anaphylaxis (hypotension).
2. In Goodpasture syndrome, autoantibodies attack the basement membranes of the
kidneys and lungs. This is an example of:
• A) Type I hypersensitivity
• B) Type II hypersensitivity
• C) Type III hypersensitivity
• D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: B) Type II hypersensitivity
Rationale: Type II is antibody-mediated (IgG/IgM) against cell surface or extracellular matrix
antigens. Goodpasture involves anti–glomerular basement membrane antibodies.
3. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) develops glomerulonephritis due to
immune complex deposition. This is which type of hypersensitivity?
• A) Type I
, • B) Type II
• C) Type III
• D) Type IV
Answer: C) Type III
Rationale: Type III involves soluble immune complex deposition in tissues, activating
complement and causing inflammation. SLE, serum sickness, and poststreptococcal
glomerulonephritis are classic examples.
4. A positive tuberculin skin test (PPD) results from induration 48–72 hours after antigen
injection. This response is mediated by:
• A) IgE and mast cells
• B) IgG and complement
• C) Immune complexes
• D) T lymphocytes and macrophages
Answer: D) T lymphocytes and macrophages
Rationale: Type IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated, not antibody-
dependent. Macrophages infiltrate the site, causing induration.
5. A patient with allergic rhinitis is prescribed antihistamines. These drugs primarily block
the effects of which mediator?
• A) Leukotrienes
• B) Prostaglandins
• C) Histamine
• D) Platelet-activating factor
Answer: C) Histamine
Rationale: Histamine is a primary mediator released from mast cells in Type I reactions. It
causes vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and bronchoconstriction.
6. Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for defense against parasitic infections
and is elevated in allergic conditions?
• A) IgA
, • B) IgD
• C) IgE
• D) IgG
Answer: C) IgE
Rationale: IgE binds to mast cells and basophils; it is involved in protection against helminths
and in Type I hypersensitivity.
7. A patient with recurrent bacterial infections is found to have very low levels of IgG, IgA,
and IgM. This condition is most likely:
• A) DiGeorge syndrome
• B) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
• C) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
• D) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Answer: B) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Rationale: CVID is a primary humoral deficiency with low immunoglobulins and recurrent
sinopulmonary infections. DiGeorge affects T cells; SCID affects both B and T cells.
8. HIV infection primarily targets which cell, leading to progressive immunosuppression?
• A) CD8+ T cells
• B) B cells
• C) CD4+ T helper cells
• D) Natural killer cells
Answer: C) CD4+ T helper cells
Rationale: HIV binds to CD4 and a coreceptor (CCR5/CXCR4). Depletion of CD4 cells causes
AIDS.
9. A patient with HIV has a CD4 count of 150 cells/mm³ and develops Pneumocystis
jirovecii pneumonia. This infection is considered:
• A) An opportunistic infection
• B) A latent viral reactivation
, • C) A secondary bacterial infection
• D) A nosocomial infection
Answer: A) An opportunistic infection
Rationale: Opportunistic infections occur when CD4 count <200. Pneumocystis is a common
AIDS-defining illness.
10. Which of the following is a characteristic of an autoimmune disorder?
• A) Hypersensitivity to environmental allergens
• B) Loss of self-tolerance
• C) Immunodeficiency against viruses
• D) Overproduction of IgE
Answer: B) Loss of self-tolerance
Rationale: Autoimmunity results from failure of central/peripheral tolerance, leading to
immune attack on self-antigens.
11. A patient with myasthenia gravis has antibodies against acetylcholine receptors. This
mechanism is:
• A) Type I hypersensitivity
• B) Type II hypersensitivity (antibody-mediated)
• C) Type III hypersensitivity
• D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: B) Type II hypersensitivity
Rationale: Antibodies block or destroy ACh receptors, impairing neuromuscular
transmission.
12. A nurse is caring for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis. Joint inflammation in RA is
primarily due to:
• A) Immune complex deposition in synovium
• B) Direct viral infection of joints
• C) IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
100+ questions Answers. (2025)
24124735
Section 1: Immunity & Hypersensitivity (Questions 1–20)
1. A patient with a history of severe allergic reaction to penicillin develops hives,
wheezing, and hypotension within minutes of receiving IV ampicillin. This reaction is most
consistent with which type of hypersensitivity?
• A) Type I
• B) Type II
• C) Type III
• D) Type IV
Answer: A) Type I
Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated, rapid (minutes), and involves mast cell
degranulation. Manifestations include urticaria (hives), bronchospasm (wheezing), and
anaphylaxis (hypotension).
2. In Goodpasture syndrome, autoantibodies attack the basement membranes of the
kidneys and lungs. This is an example of:
• A) Type I hypersensitivity
• B) Type II hypersensitivity
• C) Type III hypersensitivity
• D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: B) Type II hypersensitivity
Rationale: Type II is antibody-mediated (IgG/IgM) against cell surface or extracellular matrix
antigens. Goodpasture involves anti–glomerular basement membrane antibodies.
3. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) develops glomerulonephritis due to
immune complex deposition. This is which type of hypersensitivity?
• A) Type I
, • B) Type II
• C) Type III
• D) Type IV
Answer: C) Type III
Rationale: Type III involves soluble immune complex deposition in tissues, activating
complement and causing inflammation. SLE, serum sickness, and poststreptococcal
glomerulonephritis are classic examples.
4. A positive tuberculin skin test (PPD) results from induration 48–72 hours after antigen
injection. This response is mediated by:
• A) IgE and mast cells
• B) IgG and complement
• C) Immune complexes
• D) T lymphocytes and macrophages
Answer: D) T lymphocytes and macrophages
Rationale: Type IV (delayed-type) hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated, not antibody-
dependent. Macrophages infiltrate the site, causing induration.
5. A patient with allergic rhinitis is prescribed antihistamines. These drugs primarily block
the effects of which mediator?
• A) Leukotrienes
• B) Prostaglandins
• C) Histamine
• D) Platelet-activating factor
Answer: C) Histamine
Rationale: Histamine is a primary mediator released from mast cells in Type I reactions. It
causes vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and bronchoconstriction.
6. Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for defense against parasitic infections
and is elevated in allergic conditions?
• A) IgA
, • B) IgD
• C) IgE
• D) IgG
Answer: C) IgE
Rationale: IgE binds to mast cells and basophils; it is involved in protection against helminths
and in Type I hypersensitivity.
7. A patient with recurrent bacterial infections is found to have very low levels of IgG, IgA,
and IgM. This condition is most likely:
• A) DiGeorge syndrome
• B) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
• C) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
• D) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Answer: B) Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)
Rationale: CVID is a primary humoral deficiency with low immunoglobulins and recurrent
sinopulmonary infections. DiGeorge affects T cells; SCID affects both B and T cells.
8. HIV infection primarily targets which cell, leading to progressive immunosuppression?
• A) CD8+ T cells
• B) B cells
• C) CD4+ T helper cells
• D) Natural killer cells
Answer: C) CD4+ T helper cells
Rationale: HIV binds to CD4 and a coreceptor (CCR5/CXCR4). Depletion of CD4 cells causes
AIDS.
9. A patient with HIV has a CD4 count of 150 cells/mm³ and develops Pneumocystis
jirovecii pneumonia. This infection is considered:
• A) An opportunistic infection
• B) A latent viral reactivation
, • C) A secondary bacterial infection
• D) A nosocomial infection
Answer: A) An opportunistic infection
Rationale: Opportunistic infections occur when CD4 count <200. Pneumocystis is a common
AIDS-defining illness.
10. Which of the following is a characteristic of an autoimmune disorder?
• A) Hypersensitivity to environmental allergens
• B) Loss of self-tolerance
• C) Immunodeficiency against viruses
• D) Overproduction of IgE
Answer: B) Loss of self-tolerance
Rationale: Autoimmunity results from failure of central/peripheral tolerance, leading to
immune attack on self-antigens.
11. A patient with myasthenia gravis has antibodies against acetylcholine receptors. This
mechanism is:
• A) Type I hypersensitivity
• B) Type II hypersensitivity (antibody-mediated)
• C) Type III hypersensitivity
• D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Answer: B) Type II hypersensitivity
Rationale: Antibodies block or destroy ACh receptors, impairing neuromuscular
transmission.
12. A nurse is caring for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis. Joint inflammation in RA is
primarily due to:
• A) Immune complex deposition in synovium
• B) Direct viral infection of joints
• C) IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
