NUR 6111 – Exam 3 (Advanced Practice Nursing I) 2026 – William
Peterson University 105+Questions with Verified Answers!!
Section I: Foundations of Advanced Practice Nursing (Questions 1–20)
1. A nurse practitioner student is reviewing the Consensus Model for APRN Regulation.
Which component is not one of the four APRN roles recognized in this model?
A. Certified Nurse Midwife
B. Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist
C. Clinical Nurse Specialist
D. Nurse Administrator
Answer: D
Rationale: The Consensus Model defines four APRN roles: CNM, CRNA, CNS, and CNP. Nurse
Administrator is an advanced nursing role but not an APRN role under licensure.
2. Which landmark report called for the restructuring of clinical education for healthcare
professionals, including APRNs, to focus on competencies and interprofessional
collaboration?
A. The Flexner Report
B. The IOM Report “To Err is Human”
C. The Carnegie Foundation Report “Educating Nurses”
D. The Future of Nursing 2020-2030
Answer: C
Rationale: The Carnegie Report (2010) emphasized integrating three apprenticeships:
ethical, cognitive, and practical skills. It pushed for competency-based education in nursing.
3. An APRN is applying for prescriptive authority in a restricted practice state. What is the
most likely requirement?
A. No physician involvement required
B. Delegation agreement with a supervising physician
C. Independent prescribing for all controlled substances
D. Only non-pharmacological interventions allowed
Answer: B
Rationale: Restricted practice states require physician delegation or supervision for APRN
prescriptive authority. Full practice states allow independent prescribing.
4. A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is designing a program to reduce catheter-associated UTIs.
This role aligns most closely with which APRN competency?
,A. Direct patient care
B. Systems leadership
C. Independent prescribing
D. Anesthesia administration
Answer: B
Rationale: The CNS focuses on improving outcomes at the systems level, including evidence-
based protocols, staff education, and quality improvement.
5. A new FNP graduate is applying for hospital privileges. Which document is typically
required by credentialing committees?
A. State driver’s license
B. National Provider Identifier (NPI)
C. Curriculum vitae only
D. Personal statement of faith
Answer: B
Rationale: The NPI is a unique identifier required for billing and credentialing. It is
mandatory for hospital privileges.
6. Which organization offers the national certification exam for Family Nurse Practitioners?
A. ANCC
B. NLN
C. AACN
D. CCNE
Answer: A
Rationale: The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) and AANP both offer FNP
certification. ANCC is a common Answer for this question.
7. A PMHNP is practicing under a compact state license. What does the Nurse Licensure
Compact (NLC) allow?
A. Practice in any state without additional license
B. Practice only in the home state
C. Prescribe controlled substances across state lines without DEA
D. Practice in other compact states without obtaining a new license
Answer: D
Rationale: The NLC allows a nurse to hold one multistate license and practice in any other
compact state.
8. An APRN is sued for malpractice. Which element must be proven for liability?
A. Intent to harm
B. Breach of duty causing injury
, C. Lack of certification
D. Patient dissatisfaction
Answer: B
Rationale: Malpractice requires duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages. Breach plus
injury is essential.
9. Which APRN role focuses primarily on the care of older adults across settings?
A. Pediatric NP
B. Adult-Gerontology NP
C. Neonatal NP
D. Psychiatric NP
Answer: B
Rationale: Adult-Gerontology NP certification focuses on young adults to older adults, with
emphasis on geriatric syndromes.
10. A state board of nursing issues a cease-and-desist order to an APRN. What is the most
likely reason?
A. Prescribing antibiotics for a UTI
B. Practicing without current national certification
C. Ordering an MRI
D. Delegating vital signs to an LPN
Answer: B
Rationale: Practicing without valid certification violates state APRN licensure requirements.
Cease-and-desist orders are issued for unlicensed or unauthorized practice.
11. An APRN wants to open an independent practice in a full-practice authority state. What
is required?
A. Collaborative agreement with a physician
B. Joint commission accreditation
C. Independent state APRN license and DEA registration
D. Hospital admitting privileges
Answer: C
Rationale: Full-practice states allow APRNs to practice independently. They need state
licensure, DEA for controlled substances, and may need business licenses.
12. Which of the following is an example of horizontal violence in advanced practice?
A. A physician refusing to consult with an APRN
B. A nurse practitioner publicly criticizing another NP’s treatment plan
C. A patient filing a complaint
D. An insurance company denying payment
Peterson University 105+Questions with Verified Answers!!
Section I: Foundations of Advanced Practice Nursing (Questions 1–20)
1. A nurse practitioner student is reviewing the Consensus Model for APRN Regulation.
Which component is not one of the four APRN roles recognized in this model?
A. Certified Nurse Midwife
B. Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist
C. Clinical Nurse Specialist
D. Nurse Administrator
Answer: D
Rationale: The Consensus Model defines four APRN roles: CNM, CRNA, CNS, and CNP. Nurse
Administrator is an advanced nursing role but not an APRN role under licensure.
2. Which landmark report called for the restructuring of clinical education for healthcare
professionals, including APRNs, to focus on competencies and interprofessional
collaboration?
A. The Flexner Report
B. The IOM Report “To Err is Human”
C. The Carnegie Foundation Report “Educating Nurses”
D. The Future of Nursing 2020-2030
Answer: C
Rationale: The Carnegie Report (2010) emphasized integrating three apprenticeships:
ethical, cognitive, and practical skills. It pushed for competency-based education in nursing.
3. An APRN is applying for prescriptive authority in a restricted practice state. What is the
most likely requirement?
A. No physician involvement required
B. Delegation agreement with a supervising physician
C. Independent prescribing for all controlled substances
D. Only non-pharmacological interventions allowed
Answer: B
Rationale: Restricted practice states require physician delegation or supervision for APRN
prescriptive authority. Full practice states allow independent prescribing.
4. A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is designing a program to reduce catheter-associated UTIs.
This role aligns most closely with which APRN competency?
,A. Direct patient care
B. Systems leadership
C. Independent prescribing
D. Anesthesia administration
Answer: B
Rationale: The CNS focuses on improving outcomes at the systems level, including evidence-
based protocols, staff education, and quality improvement.
5. A new FNP graduate is applying for hospital privileges. Which document is typically
required by credentialing committees?
A. State driver’s license
B. National Provider Identifier (NPI)
C. Curriculum vitae only
D. Personal statement of faith
Answer: B
Rationale: The NPI is a unique identifier required for billing and credentialing. It is
mandatory for hospital privileges.
6. Which organization offers the national certification exam for Family Nurse Practitioners?
A. ANCC
B. NLN
C. AACN
D. CCNE
Answer: A
Rationale: The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) and AANP both offer FNP
certification. ANCC is a common Answer for this question.
7. A PMHNP is practicing under a compact state license. What does the Nurse Licensure
Compact (NLC) allow?
A. Practice in any state without additional license
B. Practice only in the home state
C. Prescribe controlled substances across state lines without DEA
D. Practice in other compact states without obtaining a new license
Answer: D
Rationale: The NLC allows a nurse to hold one multistate license and practice in any other
compact state.
8. An APRN is sued for malpractice. Which element must be proven for liability?
A. Intent to harm
B. Breach of duty causing injury
, C. Lack of certification
D. Patient dissatisfaction
Answer: B
Rationale: Malpractice requires duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages. Breach plus
injury is essential.
9. Which APRN role focuses primarily on the care of older adults across settings?
A. Pediatric NP
B. Adult-Gerontology NP
C. Neonatal NP
D. Psychiatric NP
Answer: B
Rationale: Adult-Gerontology NP certification focuses on young adults to older adults, with
emphasis on geriatric syndromes.
10. A state board of nursing issues a cease-and-desist order to an APRN. What is the most
likely reason?
A. Prescribing antibiotics for a UTI
B. Practicing without current national certification
C. Ordering an MRI
D. Delegating vital signs to an LPN
Answer: B
Rationale: Practicing without valid certification violates state APRN licensure requirements.
Cease-and-desist orders are issued for unlicensed or unauthorized practice.
11. An APRN wants to open an independent practice in a full-practice authority state. What
is required?
A. Collaborative agreement with a physician
B. Joint commission accreditation
C. Independent state APRN license and DEA registration
D. Hospital admitting privileges
Answer: C
Rationale: Full-practice states allow APRNs to practice independently. They need state
licensure, DEA for controlled substances, and may need business licenses.
12. Which of the following is an example of horizontal violence in advanced practice?
A. A physician refusing to consult with an APRN
B. A nurse practitioner publicly criticizing another NP’s treatment plan
C. A patient filing a complaint
D. An insurance company denying payment
