HESI PN Pharmacology Exit Exam
2026/2027 |Newly Released
Actual Exam |75 Verified questions & Answers with
Detailed Rationales
Graded A+
Q1: The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin (Coumadin) to a patient.
The most effective way for the nurse to verify the patient’s identity before giving the medication
is to:
A. Ask the patient to state their name and date of birth.
B. Check the name band on the patient’s wrist and then hand the medication to the patient.
C. Compare the medication administration record (MAR) with two patient identifiers, such
as name and date of birth. [CORRECT]
D. Call the patient by their first name and wait for a response.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The safest method is to check two distinct identifiers against the medication record,
typically the patient’s name and date of birth, rather than just relying on the patient stating their
name or a wristband alone.
Q2: A patient prescribed a new medication asks the nurse, "What is this drug for?" The best
response by the nurse is to:
A. Tell the patient to ask the doctor because the nurse is too busy to explain right now.
B. Provide the basic therapeutic action and the intended effect of the medication. [CORRECT]
C. Read the information directly from the package insert to the patient.
D. Suggest the patient look it up online for more accurate details.
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse is responsible for patient education and should explain the medication's
purpose and effect clearly to promote compliance and understanding.
Q3: A nurse is preparing to draw blood from a patient. Which PPE is minimally required?
A. Gown, Mask, Goggles, Gloves
B. Gloves [CORRECT]
C. Mask and Gloves
D. Gown and Gloves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard Precautions require gloves for any contact with blood or body fluids.
Additional PPE is based on the risk of splashes (e.g., goggles if phlebotomy is risky).
Q4: The nurse is preparing to administer a high-alert medication, such as intravenous (IV)
heparin. Which action is most critical to ensure patient safety?
A. Obtaining a second independent check from another qualified nurse. [CORRECT]
B. Administering the medication slowly over 5 minutes.
C. Asking the patient if they are allergic to aspirin.
D. Checking the patient’s blood pressure before giving the dose.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High-alert medications like heparin require an independent double-check by another
qualified nurse to verify the "Seven Rights" before administration to prevent potentially fatal
errors.
,Q5: A patient states, "I can’t swallow these big pills." The nurse recognizes that crushing which
of the following medications could be dangerous due to potential rapid absorption or tissue
damage?
A. Enteric-coated aspirin [CORRECT]
B. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C. Multivitamin without iron
D. Liquid pain medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Enteric-coated medications should not be crushed because destroying the coating can
lead to rapid drug release, stomach irritation, or destruction of the medication’s effectiveness.
Q6: A nurse is calculating the flow rate for an IV infusion. The provider orders 1000 mL of
normal saline to infuse over 8 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. How many drops per minute
should the nurse set the IV pump or gravity drip to deliver?
A. 31 gtt/min
B. 63 gtt/min
C. 125 gtt/min
D. 200 gtt/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The calculation is (1000 mL × 15 gtt/mL) ÷ (8 hours × 60 minutes) = 15,000 ÷ 480 =
31.25, which rounds to 31 gtt/min.
Q7: A patient is ordered furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push. The pharmacy sends a vial
containing 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse draw up for the correct dose?
A. 2 mL
B. 4 mL [CORRECT]
C. 0.4 mL
D. 10 mL
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the volume, divide the ordered dose by the concentration: 40 mg ÷ 10
mg/mL = 4 mL.
Q8: Which route of administration results in the slowest absorption rate, requiring the nurse to
monitor for delayed onset of action?
A. Intravenous (IV)
B. Intramuscular (IM)
C. Subcutaneous (SubQ)
D. Oral (PO) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The oral route is the slowest because the medication must be absorbed through the
gastrointestinal tract and pass through the liver before reaching systemic circulation (first-pass
effect).
Q9: A patient reports a history of anaphylaxis to penicillins. The nurse is reviewing the patient’s
new admission orders and sees which of the following medications prescribed?
A. Vancomycin
B. Cephalexin (Keflex) [CORRECT]
C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cephalexin is a first-generation cephalosporin, which carries a significant risk of
cross-sensitivity in patients with a penicillin allergy, requiring extreme caution.
2026/2027 |Newly Released
Actual Exam |75 Verified questions & Answers with
Detailed Rationales
Graded A+
Q1: The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin (Coumadin) to a patient.
The most effective way for the nurse to verify the patient’s identity before giving the medication
is to:
A. Ask the patient to state their name and date of birth.
B. Check the name band on the patient’s wrist and then hand the medication to the patient.
C. Compare the medication administration record (MAR) with two patient identifiers, such
as name and date of birth. [CORRECT]
D. Call the patient by their first name and wait for a response.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The safest method is to check two distinct identifiers against the medication record,
typically the patient’s name and date of birth, rather than just relying on the patient stating their
name or a wristband alone.
Q2: A patient prescribed a new medication asks the nurse, "What is this drug for?" The best
response by the nurse is to:
A. Tell the patient to ask the doctor because the nurse is too busy to explain right now.
B. Provide the basic therapeutic action and the intended effect of the medication. [CORRECT]
C. Read the information directly from the package insert to the patient.
D. Suggest the patient look it up online for more accurate details.
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse is responsible for patient education and should explain the medication's
purpose and effect clearly to promote compliance and understanding.
Q3: A nurse is preparing to draw blood from a patient. Which PPE is minimally required?
A. Gown, Mask, Goggles, Gloves
B. Gloves [CORRECT]
C. Mask and Gloves
D. Gown and Gloves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard Precautions require gloves for any contact with blood or body fluids.
Additional PPE is based on the risk of splashes (e.g., goggles if phlebotomy is risky).
Q4: The nurse is preparing to administer a high-alert medication, such as intravenous (IV)
heparin. Which action is most critical to ensure patient safety?
A. Obtaining a second independent check from another qualified nurse. [CORRECT]
B. Administering the medication slowly over 5 minutes.
C. Asking the patient if they are allergic to aspirin.
D. Checking the patient’s blood pressure before giving the dose.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: High-alert medications like heparin require an independent double-check by another
qualified nurse to verify the "Seven Rights" before administration to prevent potentially fatal
errors.
,Q5: A patient states, "I can’t swallow these big pills." The nurse recognizes that crushing which
of the following medications could be dangerous due to potential rapid absorption or tissue
damage?
A. Enteric-coated aspirin [CORRECT]
B. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C. Multivitamin without iron
D. Liquid pain medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Enteric-coated medications should not be crushed because destroying the coating can
lead to rapid drug release, stomach irritation, or destruction of the medication’s effectiveness.
Q6: A nurse is calculating the flow rate for an IV infusion. The provider orders 1000 mL of
normal saline to infuse over 8 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. How many drops per minute
should the nurse set the IV pump or gravity drip to deliver?
A. 31 gtt/min
B. 63 gtt/min
C. 125 gtt/min
D. 200 gtt/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The calculation is (1000 mL × 15 gtt/mL) ÷ (8 hours × 60 minutes) = 15,000 ÷ 480 =
31.25, which rounds to 31 gtt/min.
Q7: A patient is ordered furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push. The pharmacy sends a vial
containing 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse draw up for the correct dose?
A. 2 mL
B. 4 mL [CORRECT]
C. 0.4 mL
D. 10 mL
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the volume, divide the ordered dose by the concentration: 40 mg ÷ 10
mg/mL = 4 mL.
Q8: Which route of administration results in the slowest absorption rate, requiring the nurse to
monitor for delayed onset of action?
A. Intravenous (IV)
B. Intramuscular (IM)
C. Subcutaneous (SubQ)
D. Oral (PO) [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The oral route is the slowest because the medication must be absorbed through the
gastrointestinal tract and pass through the liver before reaching systemic circulation (first-pass
effect).
Q9: A patient reports a history of anaphylaxis to penicillins. The nurse is reviewing the patient’s
new admission orders and sees which of the following medications prescribed?
A. Vancomycin
B. Cephalexin (Keflex) [CORRECT]
C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
D. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cephalexin is a first-generation cephalosporin, which carries a significant risk of
cross-sensitivity in patients with a penicillin allergy, requiring extreme caution.
