WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS
What is the two-hit hypothesis? - Answer- It states that two copies of a gene must be
mutated for certain cancers to form.
What is the function of the TP53 gene? - Answer- It acts as a tumor suppressor that
regulates cell division and prevents cells with mutations from surviving.
What happens when p53 is activated in response to DNA damage? - Answer- It leads to
cell cycle arrest in G1 and induction of DNA repair.
What occurs if DNA repair fails in cells with functional p53? - Answer- p53 triggers either
apoptosis or senescence.
What is the significance of p53 in cancer prevention? - Answer- It prevents the
proliferation of cells with cancer-causing mutations.
What is the role of the ERBB-1 gene? - Answer- It codes for the Epidermal Growth
Factor Receptor (EGFR), which is implicated in various cancers.
What is a gain-of-function mutation? - Answer- A genetic change that causes a gene
product to acquire a new or enhanced function.
What is a loss-of-function mutation? - Answer- A genetic change that reduces or stops a
gene's normal function.
What is the impact of tumor heterogeneity on cancer treatment? - Answer- It
complicates treatment as different subclones may respond differently to therapies.
What is the relationship between tumor suppressor genes and familial cancers? -
Answer- Tumor suppressor mutations are commonly observed in familial cancers, which
have a clear inherited component.
What does it mean for a mutation to be sporadic? - Answer- It presents in a patient with
no clear family history of cancer.
What is the function of p53 at the G1/S checkpoint? - Answer- It ensures that DNA
damage is repaired before DNA replication begins.
,What happens in cells with mutated or inactive p53? - Answer- They do not accumulate
p53 in response to DNA damage, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation.
What is the role of apoptosis in cancer biology? - Answer- Apoptosis is a programmed
cell death mechanism that prevents the survival of damaged cells.
How does the diversity of tumors affect cancer research? - Answer- It presents
challenges in understanding and treating cancers due to the unique characteristics of
each tumor.
What is the significance of common mutations in cancer? - Answer- They indicate
integral processes and proteins that contribute to the evolution and resilience of cancer.
What is the role of growth factor receptor pathways in cancer? - Answer- They mediate
processes like embryonic growth and injury repair, which can be disrupted in cancer.
What is the outcome of successful DNA repair in cells? - Answer- Cells can proceed
with the cell cycle and continue normal functions.
What is the role of EGFR in cellular processes? - Answer- EGFR detects extracellular
signals and forms dimers to transmit signals into the cell, initiating processes associated
with cell growth and survival.
How is gene expression induced by EGFR? - Answer- EGFR is a tyrosine kinase
receptor that detects extracellular ligands and induces gene expression.
What is a tyrosine kinase? - Answer- An enzyme that transfers a phosphate group to
specific proteins inside a cell, functioning as an 'on' or 'off' switch in cellular functions.
What occurs upon ligand binding to EGFR? - Answer- The intracellular domains of
EGFR undergo a structural change, activating the receptor.
What is phosphorylation in the context of EGFR? - Answer- The attachment of a
phosphate group to EGFR in the cytoplasm, leading to the activation of secondary
messengers.
What are secondary messengers? - Answer- Molecules that trigger physiological
changes such as cell proliferation, survival, and apoptosis.
What is pathology? - Answer- The study of disease, including causes, effects, and tests
to determine the state of disease.
What role do clinical pathologists play? - Answer- They analyze microbiological test
results to identify a patient's illness.
, What is the focus of molecular genetics in pathology? - Answer- It is a major research
area that is increasingly used in preventive medicine.
How does understanding infectious diseases pathology influence healthcare? - Answer-
It guides the allocation of health care resources to vulnerable populations.
What are physical and social determinants of health? - Answer- Factors influencing
health beyond genetics and lifestyle, such as living conditions.
What is triage in a medical context? - Answer- The process of determining the severity
of disease to prioritize treatment among patients.
What are the three reasons for admitting a patient into the hospital? - Answer- 1.
Condition too severe to send home. 2. Undiagnosed issue causing concern. 3.
Stabilized but needs treatment and monitoring.
What happens during the diagnosis phase of patient care? - Answer- Tests are ordered
by specialists to characterize the disease, including laboratory analysis and imaging.
What is point-of-care testing? - Answer- Medical diagnostic testing performed at the
time and place of patient care, providing real-time results.
What does prognosis mean in a medical context? - Answer- Predicting the likely
development of a disease, including potential improvement or worsening of symptoms.
What is palliative care? - Answer- Care aimed at making a terminally ill patient
comfortable, focusing on relieving symptoms rather than curing the disease.
What is the discharge process after treatment? - Answer- Patients are monitored in-
hospital and then discharged with conditions for release, such as follow-up support.
What factors can hinder access to optimal healthcare? - Answer- Fear of the medical
system, systemic racism, and lack of access to primary or tertiary care.
What is the pathology disease paradigm? - Answer- 1. Etiology (cause) 2. Pathogenesis
(mechanisms) 3. Testing 4. Natural history (prognosis) 5. Treatment.
What is the etiology of strep throat? - Answer- An upper respiratory infection caused by
the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes.
How does Streptococcus pyogenes cause disease? - Answer- By adhering to and
invading the lining of the nasal and oral cavities.
What is the rapid strep test? - Answer- A test that detects the presence of
Streptococcus pyogenes antigens from a throat swab.