1
NURS 5432 Family I Midterm Exam Modules 1-6 University
of Texas Arlington Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified – Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Module 1: Foundations of Family Practice & Health Promotion (Questions 1-15)
1. The FNP is using the Calgary Family Assessment Model (CFAM). Which category within the
structural assessment includes the "genogram"?
A. Internal Structure.
B. External Structure.
C. Context.
D. Family Function.
A. Internal Structure. [CORRECT]
Rationale: In the CFAM, the Internal Structure includes family composition, gender, rank, and
the genogram, which maps family structure and patterns. External structure deals with
connections outside the family (like extended family or friends).
Correct Answer: A
2. A patient presents with a BMI of 32 kg/m² and states, "I know I should lose weight, but I just
don't have the time to cook." According to the Transtheoretical Model (Stages of Change), this
patient is in which stage?
A. Precontemplation.
B. Contemplation.
C. Preparation.
D. Action.
B. Contemplation. [CORRECT]
Rationale: The Contemplation stage is characterized by the intention to change within the next 6
months, but the patient has not yet taken action. They acknowledge the need but have barriers
(time).
Correct Answer: B
,2
3. Which visual tool is best utilized by the FNP to assess a family's connections to external
systems such as school, work, church, and healthcare providers?
A. Genogram.
B. Ecomap.
C. Sociogram.
D. Family Circle.
B. Ecomap. [CORRECT]
Rationale: An Ecomap visualizes the family's connections to the broader environment and social
support systems, indicating the strength and nature of these relationships. A genogram focuses on
family structure and internal history.
Correct Answer: B
4. When using Motivational Interviewing (MI) techniques, what does the acronym "OARS"
stand for?
A. Open-ended questions, Affirmations, Reflections, Summaries.
B. Options, Advice, Reflections, Solutions.
C. Observation, Assessment, Referral, Support.
D. Order, Analysis, Re-evaluation, Synthesis.
A. Open-ended questions, Affirmations, Reflections, Summaries. [CORRECT]
Rationale: OARS are the core micro-skills of Motivational Interviewing used to elicit change
talk and strengthen the patient's motivation.
Correct Answer: A
5. According to the 2026 USPSTF guidelines, at what age should colorectal cancer screening
begin for average-risk adults?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
,3
D. 55
B. 45 [CORRECT]
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends initiating screening for colorectal cancer at age 45 for
average-risk adults, continuing until age 75.
Correct Answer: B
6. The FNP is counseling a 26-year-old female on contraception. She desires long-term,
reversible contraception and does not want to take a daily pill. Which method is the most
effective (>99%) and fits her criteria?
A. Combined oral contraceptives.
B. Condoms.
C. Levonorgestrel IUD.
D. Fertility awareness method.
C. Levonorgestrel IUD. [CORRECT]
Rationale: Long-acting reversible contraception (LARC) methods like IUDs and implants are the
most effective reversible methods of contraception, with typical use failure rates less than 1%.
Correct Answer: C
7. Which of the following is a contraindication to receiving the MMR vaccine?
A. Pregnancy.
B. HIV infection without symptoms.
C. Allergy to penicillin.
D. History of egg allergy.
A. Pregnancy. [CORRECT]
Rationale: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the
theoretical risk of transmission of the rubella virus to the fetus.
Correct Answer: A
, 4
8. A 45-year-old patient presents for an annual physical. What is the recommended screening for
lipid disorders according to the USPSTF?
A. Screen every 5 years starting at age 20.
B. Screen every 1-2 years starting at age 40.
C. Screen every 5 years starting at age 45.
D. Screen only if symptoms are present.
B. Screen every 1-2 years starting at age 40. [CORRECT]
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for lipid disorders in adults aged 40 to 75 years
to assess cardiovascular risk. The frequency can range from every 1 to 5 years depending on risk
factors.
Correct Answer: B
9. A patient with hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia is hesitant to start a new medication.
The FNP asks, "What concerns do you have about taking this medication?" This is an example
of:
A. An open-ended question.
B. A closed-ended question.
C. A leading question.
D. A confrontation.
A. An open-ended question. [CORRECT]
Rationale: This question invites a broad narrative response and cannot be answered with a simple
"yes" or "no," facilitating communication and exploring the patient's ambivalence.
Correct Answer: A
10. According to the 2026 CDC/ACIP immunization schedule, which vaccine is recommended
annually for all persons aged 6 months and older?
A. Tdap.
B. Influenza.
C. Pneumococcal.
NURS 5432 Family I Midterm Exam Modules 1-6 University
of Texas Arlington Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
Verified – Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Module 1: Foundations of Family Practice & Health Promotion (Questions 1-15)
1. The FNP is using the Calgary Family Assessment Model (CFAM). Which category within the
structural assessment includes the "genogram"?
A. Internal Structure.
B. External Structure.
C. Context.
D. Family Function.
A. Internal Structure. [CORRECT]
Rationale: In the CFAM, the Internal Structure includes family composition, gender, rank, and
the genogram, which maps family structure and patterns. External structure deals with
connections outside the family (like extended family or friends).
Correct Answer: A
2. A patient presents with a BMI of 32 kg/m² and states, "I know I should lose weight, but I just
don't have the time to cook." According to the Transtheoretical Model (Stages of Change), this
patient is in which stage?
A. Precontemplation.
B. Contemplation.
C. Preparation.
D. Action.
B. Contemplation. [CORRECT]
Rationale: The Contemplation stage is characterized by the intention to change within the next 6
months, but the patient has not yet taken action. They acknowledge the need but have barriers
(time).
Correct Answer: B
,2
3. Which visual tool is best utilized by the FNP to assess a family's connections to external
systems such as school, work, church, and healthcare providers?
A. Genogram.
B. Ecomap.
C. Sociogram.
D. Family Circle.
B. Ecomap. [CORRECT]
Rationale: An Ecomap visualizes the family's connections to the broader environment and social
support systems, indicating the strength and nature of these relationships. A genogram focuses on
family structure and internal history.
Correct Answer: B
4. When using Motivational Interviewing (MI) techniques, what does the acronym "OARS"
stand for?
A. Open-ended questions, Affirmations, Reflections, Summaries.
B. Options, Advice, Reflections, Solutions.
C. Observation, Assessment, Referral, Support.
D. Order, Analysis, Re-evaluation, Synthesis.
A. Open-ended questions, Affirmations, Reflections, Summaries. [CORRECT]
Rationale: OARS are the core micro-skills of Motivational Interviewing used to elicit change
talk and strengthen the patient's motivation.
Correct Answer: A
5. According to the 2026 USPSTF guidelines, at what age should colorectal cancer screening
begin for average-risk adults?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
,3
D. 55
B. 45 [CORRECT]
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends initiating screening for colorectal cancer at age 45 for
average-risk adults, continuing until age 75.
Correct Answer: B
6. The FNP is counseling a 26-year-old female on contraception. She desires long-term,
reversible contraception and does not want to take a daily pill. Which method is the most
effective (>99%) and fits her criteria?
A. Combined oral contraceptives.
B. Condoms.
C. Levonorgestrel IUD.
D. Fertility awareness method.
C. Levonorgestrel IUD. [CORRECT]
Rationale: Long-acting reversible contraception (LARC) methods like IUDs and implants are the
most effective reversible methods of contraception, with typical use failure rates less than 1%.
Correct Answer: C
7. Which of the following is a contraindication to receiving the MMR vaccine?
A. Pregnancy.
B. HIV infection without symptoms.
C. Allergy to penicillin.
D. History of egg allergy.
A. Pregnancy. [CORRECT]
Rationale: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the
theoretical risk of transmission of the rubella virus to the fetus.
Correct Answer: A
, 4
8. A 45-year-old patient presents for an annual physical. What is the recommended screening for
lipid disorders according to the USPSTF?
A. Screen every 5 years starting at age 20.
B. Screen every 1-2 years starting at age 40.
C. Screen every 5 years starting at age 45.
D. Screen only if symptoms are present.
B. Screen every 1-2 years starting at age 40. [CORRECT]
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for lipid disorders in adults aged 40 to 75 years
to assess cardiovascular risk. The frequency can range from every 1 to 5 years depending on risk
factors.
Correct Answer: B
9. A patient with hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia is hesitant to start a new medication.
The FNP asks, "What concerns do you have about taking this medication?" This is an example
of:
A. An open-ended question.
B. A closed-ended question.
C. A leading question.
D. A confrontation.
A. An open-ended question. [CORRECT]
Rationale: This question invites a broad narrative response and cannot be answered with a simple
"yes" or "no," facilitating communication and exploring the patient's ambivalence.
Correct Answer: A
10. According to the 2026 CDC/ACIP immunization schedule, which vaccine is recommended
annually for all persons aged 6 months and older?
A. Tdap.
B. Influenza.
C. Pneumococcal.
