MGT 3640 Final Exam– Organizational Communication;Polytechnic University of Puerto Rico MGT 3640 – Organizational Communication Final Test

Exam MGT 3640 Final Exam– Organizational Communication;Polytechnic University of Puerto Rico MGT 3640 Final Exam– Organizational Communication;Polytechnic University of Puerto Rico MGT 3640 – Organizational Communication Final Test 30 points (½ point each item) Multiple Choice – PLEASE – PLEASE – PLEASE: SUBMIT ONLY THE ANSWER FORM Chapter 7 1. Groups tend to outperform individuals when A. time pressures are intense. B. members share similar opinions. C. standards of performance are high. D. employees are not highly committed to the job. 2. An effective team exhibits all of the following except A. shared goals. B. directive leadership. C. a results-driven structure. D. competent team members. 3. One tip that can help members of virtual teams is: A. Members should not confer privately with one other team member; all conferring should be done with the entire group. B. Members of virtual teams should not express their personal emotions. C. Unlike face-to-face teams, virtual teams do not have to deal with cultural differences in communication style. D. Test the technical system the group will be using in advance of the meeting. 4. The Leader Member Exchange (LMX) theory teaches that A. leaders exchange perks for good performance from members. B. because time and energy are limited, every leader has some high-quality relationships with employees, and some low-quality relationships with other employees. C. an effective organization will exchange its worst leaders for new leaders each year. D. if employees exchange their poor communication habits for better communication skills, they will become leaders. 5. Coercive power is a function of A. a person’s job title. B. the consequences a person can impose. C. a person’s intelligence. D. the degree to which a person is respected. 6. Referent power is a function of A. a person’s job title. B. the punishment a person can impose. C. a person’s intelligence. D. the degree to which a person is respected. 7. The “functional perspective” of group communication teaches that A. leadership must be performed only by designated leaders. B. the functions necessary for getting a job done can be shared among group members. C. social needs are not important to the group’s productivity. D. influence can be possessed by only one person at a time. 8. We learn from the functional perspective that A. an effective group will identify missing task and relational functions so members can fill them. B. the more people that fill a particular functional role, the better. C. as long as one or two roles are filled, the group will function fine. D. group members should be sure to fill all three types of roles: task, relational, and dysfunctional. 9. Ideally, groups should create constructive norms A. early in the group’s existence. B. after the first conflict arises. C. after members have become very well acquainted. D. in a meeting convened solely for the purpose of establishing norms. 10. Groupthink refers to A. a desirable condition in which each member of the group engages in critical thinking. B. a desirable condition, because the group is able to make decisions quickly, guided by the members with the most expertise. C. an undesirable condition, because members feel too intimidated to express the dissent they feel about proposals. D. an undesirable condition, because groups that spend too much time listening to members’ various ideas are too slow to take action. Chapter 8 11. In which of the following situations would it be best to call a meeting rather than to send a memo? A. The information that is being communicated is controversial. B. Some key people are not available to attend the meeting. C. Members do not have time to prepare for the meeting. D. The reason for meeting would be routine (e.g., reading progress reports). 12. Goal descriptions for agenda items should be _________. A. result-oriented B. demanding C. process-driven D. generic 13. When a meeting is conducted according to parliamentary procedure, all of the following items are included on the standard meeting agenda except A. old business. B. new business. C. unfinished business. D. minutes. 14. What type of questions would most likely encourage comments from normally quiet people? A. overhead questions B. direct questions C. reverse questions rephrased as overhead questions D. relay questions 15. During a meeting, if the discussion rambles on after a decision has been made, A. let the discussion occur, because it is beneficial. B. ask the talkative member to be quiet. C. summarize what has taken place in the meeting, then redirect the discussion. D. change the subject. 16. Which is the recommended approach for concluding a meeting? A. Use a buzzer to indicate that the meeting has ended. B. Hand out an agenda for the next meeting. C. Acknowledge your accomplishments as the group’s leader. D. Point out that the meeting is close to completion, summarize the group’s accomplishments, outline future actions, and thank members for having attended. 17. Which of the following describes the brainstorming process? A. Focus on quantity, not quality, of ideas. B. Briefly evaluate each idea as soon as it’s stated. C. Discard ideas that don’t meet with instant approval from all group members. D. Do not combine ideas. 18. The first four steps of the reflective thinking sequence, in order, are: A. define the problem; analyze the problem; establish criteria for a solution; generate possible solutions to the problem. B. brainstorm solutions; analyze and decide on a solution; implement the best solution; follow up on the solution. C. forming; storming; norming; performing. D. orientation; conflict; emergence; reinforcement. 19. The decision mode in which all members agree (at least to some extent) is known as A. consensus. B. yes-yes. C. concurrence. D. complementarity. 20. The “minority decision” method of decision-making A. can work well if the larger group has confidence in the minority group. B. should be avoided whenever possible because it is undemocratic. C. takes advantage of the creativity of the entire group. D. builds unanimous support from every member. Chapter 9 21. If you were giving a presentation and your primary goal was to expand your audience’s existing knowledge on a topic, which of the following types of general purposes would you be using? A. to inform B. to persuade C. to manipulate D. to entertain 22. As you begin to develop your presentation, you should determine whom you want to influence and what reaction you want from them. This is called a ____________ . A. general goal B. specific goal C. rationale D. thesis statement 23. The three main parts of a speech are: A. attention-getter; thesis; preview. B. preview; view; review. C. introduction; body; conclusion. D. point 1; point 2; point 3. 24. Of the steps listed below, which should come first as you begin to organize the ideas you’ve brainstormed and researched into an outline? A. identifying the key points B. writing the introduction C. creating transitions D. writing the conclusion 25. Which type of organizational pattern is sometimes referred to as a “catch-all” approach? A. chronological B. topical C. problem-solution D. cause-effect 26. According to the textbook, what is the maximum number of main points that should be included in the body of a presentation? A. three B. five C. seven D. ten 27. An introduction should A. analyze your audience. B. provide numerous details about your main points. C. capture the attention of your audience, state your thesis, and preview your main points. D. list all the research sources you used to get information for your speech. 28. If your purpose in the introduction is to surprise the audience in order to get their attention, which of the following types of opening statements would you most likely use? A. asking a question B. presenting a quotation C. referring to the occasion D. making a startling statement 29. The conclusion of a presentation should consist of A. a review and closing statement. B. challenging your audience and listing your references. C. an appeal for action and at least one new piece of information supporting that appeal. D. a joke and a closing statement. 30. The functions of transitions include all of the following EXCEPT A. promoting a clear presentation of ideas. B. emphasizing important points. C. helping listeners anticipate the next point. D. providing evidence to support a key point. Chapter 10 31. According to the text, stories are effective forms of verbal support because they allow you to create a situation that illustrates the point you are making to the audience. All of the following are guidelines to consider when you include a story in a presentation except: A. The story should be appropriate for the audience. B. The story should be brief and get right to the point. C. Only use stories that support the point you are making. D. A humorous story is effective even if it isn't relevant to your speech. 32. Which types of story can be used to add interest to a presentation? A. factual B. hypothetical C. fictional D. all of the above 33. Which type of story can be used not only to add interest, but also as proof of your point? A. factual B. hypothetical C. fictional D. fantasy 34. During her presentation to the board of directors, Nadia showed a slide with two graphs, side by side. One graph showed her company’s current outcomes. The second graph depicted the outcomes of a similar company that had adopted the GoQuickly Training Program for its employees. Which type of support was Nadia using to make her point more memorable? A. quotation B. story C. definition D. comparison 35. According to research cited in the text, the impact of a presentation is greater if the material is presented A. orally only. B. visually only. C. both visually and orally. D. It doesn't make any difference whether the material is presented orally, visually, or both. 36. A guideline for lists in your presentation is: A. lines of text should never exceed 25 characters across, including spaces. B. keep the size of your type small so the display won't look crowded. C. use bulleted lists to show the ranking of items. D. use complete sentences, not short phrases. 37. A ____________ is most effective for showing the correlation between two or more trends. A. pie chart B. photograph C. graph D. pictogram 38. One advantage of using a dry erase board is: A. you can take the material home with you at the end of the presentation. B. you can keep eye contact with the audience as you write. C. the visual will be prepared ahead of time. D. you can record information that comes up on the spot. 39. Well-designed visual aids should A. contain a great amount of detail. B. never need explanation by the speaker. C. use vertical printing. D. show labels for all important items. 40. Which is a guideline for designing effective visuals? A. Supply all necessary details visually. B. Use full sentences. C. Use vertical printing. D. Keep the design simple. Chapter 11 41. A monologue presentation A. allows the interests of the customer to drive the presentation. B. feels more like a conversation than a speech. C. occurs when the speaker delivers the entire presentation without interruption from the audience. D. encourages listeners to speak up with questions and comments. 42. A guided discussion A. works best with large audiences in formal settings. B. feels more like a conversation than a speech. C. refers to a speech delivered without interruption from the audience. D. occurs when a speaker has a set plan of material to cover, but encourages listeners to join in during the presentation with questions and comments. 43. An interactive presentation A. is suitable for a large audience. B. is common in sales settings. C. occurs when the speaker delivers the entire presentation without interruption from the audience. D. occurs when the speaker sticks exactly with a predetermined plan. 44. Bettina was asked to give a presentation to a group of potential investors. She wouldn’t find out what topics they wanted her to discuss until she collected their questions a few moments before the presentation. What type of delivery must Bettina use in this situation? A. manuscript B. memorized C. extemporaneous D. improvised 45. If you are speaking to a culturally diverse business audience, it is recommended that you A. use nouns instead of pronouns, when speaking about others. B. speak in a less formal style than you would typically use for a U.S. business presentation. C. use an unstructured organizational plan. D. avoid using handouts. 46. According to the text, the most effective way to begin a presentation is A. with an audiovisual aid. B. immediately upon arriving at your speaking position. C. after you pause and look at the audience. D. by speaking at a brisk rate. 47. It is generally not effective to __________ while presenting your speech. A. hold your head upright, turning slightly as you look at audience members in various parts of the room. B. use a relaxed but firm stance. C. occasionally, walk purposefully away from and then return to your original position. D. constantly pace back and forth. 48. To conclude your speech effectively, A. walk quickly away from the lectern as the audience is clapping. B. drop the pitch of your voice to signal you’ve finished your remarks. C. shrug your shoulders and shuffle off. D. look down at your notes and say “Well, I guess that’s about it.” 49. Which of the following characterizes an oral speaking style? A. complex sentences B. personal pronouns C. passive voice D. indirect forms of address 50. You can minimize audience interruptions by A. asking the audience to turn off cell phones and laptops during your presentation. B. serving refreshments during your presentation. C. keeping the doors open during your presentation to encourage latecomers to enter. D. completing your entire presentation (if it is lengthy) without any breaks. Chapter 12 51. The typical order of points in a status report is: A. introduction, background, what happened, results, additional resources. B. attention-getter, thesis, preview, body, call to action. C. purpose, current state, obstacles, next milestone, forecast for the future. D. attention, need, satisfaction, visualization, action. 52. The typical order of points in a final report is A. attention-getter, thesis, preview, body, and call-to-action. B. introduction, background, description of what happened, results, additional resources. C. purpose, current state, obstacles, next milestone, and forecast for the future. D. attention, need, satisfaction, visualization, action. 53. A(n) ____________ is a presentation that teaches listeners how to do something. A. training B. active learning C. status report D. briefing 54. The first step in planning a training program is to A. write a report. B. identify the specific results you want to bring about. C. locate the staffing and physical resources you will need. D. choose a training approach. 55. When giving an explanation of a complicated concept or process, you will usually be most successful when you A. compare the concept with one already familiar to the audience. B. give a long, detailed explanation. C. mention each point only once to avoid confusion. D. use technical language to build your credibility. 56. Persuasive presentations differ from informative presentations because they A. are unethical. B. don’t advocate a position. C. seek to change the way an audience thinks, feels, or acts. D. use manipulation. 57. The purpose of a proposal is to A. introduce a problem. B. solve a problem. C. advocate that your audience take specific action. D. explain the impact of a program. 58. The most typical and straightforward approach for organizing a proposal is a _______________ pattern of organization. A. chronological B. criteria satisfaction C. motivational sequence D. problem solution 59. Which of the following situations would detract the most from the audience’s trust in you as a speaker? A. You will derive personal benefits if the audience accepts your proposal, but you do not reveal this to the audience. B. You will derive personal benefits if the audience accepts your proposal, but you confess this to your audience and then show them how the proposal will benefit them as well as you. C. You have credentials in the area about which you are speaking. D. You cite impartial third parties who support your position. 60. Which of the following would contribute to an effective delivery of a group presentation? A. When it is your turn to speak, look at your teammates. B. When you’re not speaking, look at the audience with undivided attention. C. If you are bored when a team member is speaking, look at your notes to hide your boredom. D. Choose a seating format that will allow each speaker to get up and sit down without running into obstacles or bumping into one another.