APHY 102 Final Exam v2 Actual Exam
2026/2027 Complete Questions and Answers
with Detailed Rationales – Pass Guaranteed –
A+ Graded
Section 1: Endocrine System
Q1: Which two hormones are released from the posterior pituitary gland?
A. Growth hormone and prolactin
B. ACTH and TSH
C. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin [CORRECT]
D. FSH and LH
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The posterior pituitary stores and releases hormones made in the
hypothalamus—specifically antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin. The anterior
pituitary produces and secretes the other tropic hormones listed in the distractors.
Q2: A patient with a hypothalamic tumor experiences decreased secretion of releasing
hormones. Which outcome would the nurse expect regarding anterior pituitary function?
A. Excess production of thyroid hormone
B. Decreased secretion of anterior pituitary hormones [CORRECT]
C. Increased ADH levels
D. Unchanged anterior pituitary activity because it functions independently
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary through releasing and
inhibiting hormones delivered via the hypophyseal portal system. If hypothalamic
,releasing hormones drop, anterior pituitary secretion of its tropic hormones falls
correspondingly.
Q3: Calcitonin is produced by which specific cells in the thyroid gland?
A. Follicular cells
B. Parafollicular cells (C cells) [CORRECT]
C. Principal cells
D. Chief cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parafollicular cells, also called C cells, reside between thyroid follicles and
secrete calcitonin in response to elevated blood calcium. Follicular cells produce T3 and
T4, while chief cells are found in the parathyroid glands.
Q4: A patient's blood calcium level rises to 11.5 mg/dL. Which hormonal response
occurs to bring calcium back toward normal?
A. Parathyroid hormone increases and calcitonin increases
B. Parathyroid hormone decreases and calcitonin increases [CORRECT]
C. Parathyroid hormone increases and calcitonin decreases
D. Both hormones remain unchanged because calcium is regulated by vitamin D alone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High blood calcium triggers a drop in PTH (which raises calcium) and a rise
in calcitonin (which lowers calcium by inhibiting osteoclast activity and increasing renal
excretion), demonstrating classic negative feedback control.
Q5: A young woman presents with weight loss, heat intolerance, tachycardia, and
exophthalmos. Which gland and hormone are most likely involved in this condition?
A. Adrenal cortex and cortisol
B. Thyroid gland and excessive T3/T4 [CORRECT]
C. Posterior pituitary and ADH
D. Pancreas and glucagon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This classic presentation of Graves' disease results from autoimmune
overstimulation of the thyroid gland, causing excessive release of T3 and T4 that ramps
up metabolic rate, increases heart rate, and produces the characteristic eye changes.
,Q6: Which zone of the adrenal cortex produces aldosterone?
A. Zona fasciculata
B. Zona reticularis
C. Zona glomerulosa [CORRECT]
D. Adrenal medulla
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The outermost zona glomerulosa secretes mineralocorticoids, primarily
aldosterone, which regulates sodium and potassium balance. The zona fasciculata
produces cortisol, and the medulla releases epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Q7: During final exam week, a student notices her blood glucose is elevated despite not
eating sugary foods. Which hormone is primarily responsible for this stress-induced
hyperglycemia?
A. Insulin
B. Aldosterone
C. Cortisol [CORRECT]
D. Calcitonin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cortisol is a glucocorticoid released during stress that promotes
gluconeogenesis and reduces peripheral glucose uptake, intentionally raising blood
glucose to fuel the fight-or-flight response. This is why chronic stress can mimic
diabetic patterns.
Q8: A patient with low blood pressure and high potassium levels is most likely
experiencing dysregulation of which hormone?
A. Cortisol
B. Aldosterone [CORRECT]
C. Thyroxine
D. Growth hormone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aldosterone normally promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion
while maintaining plasma volume. When aldosterone is deficient, as in Addison's
disease, patients develop hypotension and hyperkalemia due to loss of these regulatory
effects.
, Q9: Which pancreatic cell type secretes somatostatin?
A. Alpha cells
B. Beta cells
C. Delta cells [CORRECT]
D. Acinar cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Delta cells within the pancreatic islets release somatostatin, which acts in a
paracrine manner to inhibit both insulin and glucagon secretion, helping to prevent
extreme swings in blood glucose.
Q10: After fasting for 12 hours, which hormone is elevated and what is its primary target
organ effect?
A. Insulin; promotes glycogen synthesis in the liver
B. Glucagon; stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver [CORRECT]
C. Cortisol; inhibits glucose uptake by skeletal muscle
D. Growth hormone; stimulates glucose uptake by adipose tissue
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During fasting, falling blood glucose triggers glucagon release from
pancreatic alpha cells, which acts primarily on the liver to break down glycogen and
synthesize new glucose for release into the bloodstream.
Q11: A 45-year-old overweight patient has elevated fasting glucose but normal insulin
levels. Which pathophysiological mechanism best explains this pattern?
A. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells
B. Peripheral insulin resistance with compensatory beta cell dysfunction [CORRECT]
C. Absolute insulin deficiency requiring exogenous replacement
D. Excessive glucagon suppression by somatostatin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically begins with peripheral insulin resistance;
initially the pancreas compensates with more insulin, but over time beta cells fatigue
and relative insulin deficiency develops. This differs from Type 1, which involves
autoimmune destruction and absolute deficiency.
Q12: A hormone binds to a receptor on the cell surface and activates a second
messenger system. Which chemical class does this hormone most likely belong to?
2026/2027 Complete Questions and Answers
with Detailed Rationales – Pass Guaranteed –
A+ Graded
Section 1: Endocrine System
Q1: Which two hormones are released from the posterior pituitary gland?
A. Growth hormone and prolactin
B. ACTH and TSH
C. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin [CORRECT]
D. FSH and LH
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The posterior pituitary stores and releases hormones made in the
hypothalamus—specifically antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin. The anterior
pituitary produces and secretes the other tropic hormones listed in the distractors.
Q2: A patient with a hypothalamic tumor experiences decreased secretion of releasing
hormones. Which outcome would the nurse expect regarding anterior pituitary function?
A. Excess production of thyroid hormone
B. Decreased secretion of anterior pituitary hormones [CORRECT]
C. Increased ADH levels
D. Unchanged anterior pituitary activity because it functions independently
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary through releasing and
inhibiting hormones delivered via the hypophyseal portal system. If hypothalamic
,releasing hormones drop, anterior pituitary secretion of its tropic hormones falls
correspondingly.
Q3: Calcitonin is produced by which specific cells in the thyroid gland?
A. Follicular cells
B. Parafollicular cells (C cells) [CORRECT]
C. Principal cells
D. Chief cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Parafollicular cells, also called C cells, reside between thyroid follicles and
secrete calcitonin in response to elevated blood calcium. Follicular cells produce T3 and
T4, while chief cells are found in the parathyroid glands.
Q4: A patient's blood calcium level rises to 11.5 mg/dL. Which hormonal response
occurs to bring calcium back toward normal?
A. Parathyroid hormone increases and calcitonin increases
B. Parathyroid hormone decreases and calcitonin increases [CORRECT]
C. Parathyroid hormone increases and calcitonin decreases
D. Both hormones remain unchanged because calcium is regulated by vitamin D alone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High blood calcium triggers a drop in PTH (which raises calcium) and a rise
in calcitonin (which lowers calcium by inhibiting osteoclast activity and increasing renal
excretion), demonstrating classic negative feedback control.
Q5: A young woman presents with weight loss, heat intolerance, tachycardia, and
exophthalmos. Which gland and hormone are most likely involved in this condition?
A. Adrenal cortex and cortisol
B. Thyroid gland and excessive T3/T4 [CORRECT]
C. Posterior pituitary and ADH
D. Pancreas and glucagon
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This classic presentation of Graves' disease results from autoimmune
overstimulation of the thyroid gland, causing excessive release of T3 and T4 that ramps
up metabolic rate, increases heart rate, and produces the characteristic eye changes.
,Q6: Which zone of the adrenal cortex produces aldosterone?
A. Zona fasciculata
B. Zona reticularis
C. Zona glomerulosa [CORRECT]
D. Adrenal medulla
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The outermost zona glomerulosa secretes mineralocorticoids, primarily
aldosterone, which regulates sodium and potassium balance. The zona fasciculata
produces cortisol, and the medulla releases epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Q7: During final exam week, a student notices her blood glucose is elevated despite not
eating sugary foods. Which hormone is primarily responsible for this stress-induced
hyperglycemia?
A. Insulin
B. Aldosterone
C. Cortisol [CORRECT]
D. Calcitonin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cortisol is a glucocorticoid released during stress that promotes
gluconeogenesis and reduces peripheral glucose uptake, intentionally raising blood
glucose to fuel the fight-or-flight response. This is why chronic stress can mimic
diabetic patterns.
Q8: A patient with low blood pressure and high potassium levels is most likely
experiencing dysregulation of which hormone?
A. Cortisol
B. Aldosterone [CORRECT]
C. Thyroxine
D. Growth hormone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aldosterone normally promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion
while maintaining plasma volume. When aldosterone is deficient, as in Addison's
disease, patients develop hypotension and hyperkalemia due to loss of these regulatory
effects.
, Q9: Which pancreatic cell type secretes somatostatin?
A. Alpha cells
B. Beta cells
C. Delta cells [CORRECT]
D. Acinar cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Delta cells within the pancreatic islets release somatostatin, which acts in a
paracrine manner to inhibit both insulin and glucagon secretion, helping to prevent
extreme swings in blood glucose.
Q10: After fasting for 12 hours, which hormone is elevated and what is its primary target
organ effect?
A. Insulin; promotes glycogen synthesis in the liver
B. Glucagon; stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver [CORRECT]
C. Cortisol; inhibits glucose uptake by skeletal muscle
D. Growth hormone; stimulates glucose uptake by adipose tissue
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During fasting, falling blood glucose triggers glucagon release from
pancreatic alpha cells, which acts primarily on the liver to break down glycogen and
synthesize new glucose for release into the bloodstream.
Q11: A 45-year-old overweight patient has elevated fasting glucose but normal insulin
levels. Which pathophysiological mechanism best explains this pattern?
A. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells
B. Peripheral insulin resistance with compensatory beta cell dysfunction [CORRECT]
C. Absolute insulin deficiency requiring exogenous replacement
D. Excessive glucagon suppression by somatostatin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically begins with peripheral insulin resistance;
initially the pancreas compensates with more insulin, but over time beta cells fatigue
and relative insulin deficiency develops. This differs from Type 1, which involves
autoimmune destruction and absolute deficiency.
Q12: A hormone binds to a receptor on the cell surface and activates a second
messenger system. Which chemical class does this hormone most likely belong to?
