NUR 230 | Maternal & Pediatric Nursing FULL
EXAM PACK 2026 |Actual Questions and
Answers |Guaranteed Pass |Galen College of
Nursing
1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation who presents
with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse
suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Placenta previa
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Abruptio placentae usually involves painful bleeding.
2. A 4-week-old infant is brought to the clinic for projectile vomiting after
feedings and constant hunger. Which condition is most likely?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Intussusception
D. Hirschsprung disease
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents between 3-6 weeks of life with
non-bile stained projectile vomiting and a palpable olive-shaped mass.
,3. Which medication is the primary treatment for preventing seizures in a client
with preeclampsia?
A. Labetalol
B. Nifedipine
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Terbutaline
Answer: C
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis (eclampsia) in
clients with preeclampsia.
4. A child is admitted with a diagnosis of Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis).
Which clinical finding is most characteristic of this condition?
A. High-pitched wheezing on expiration
B. Productive cough with thick green sputum
C. Barking cough and inspiratory stridor
D. Silent chest with no air movement
Answer: C
Rationale: Croup is characterized by edema of the larynx and trachea, resulting in a
distinct ‘seal-like’ barking cough and inspiratory stridor.
5. When assessing a postpartum client 24 hours after delivery, the nurse notes
the fundus is firm and two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the
right. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Ask the client to void or catheterize if necessary
B. Document this as a normal finding
C. Massage the fundus until it lowers
D. Notify the healthcare provider of a potential hemorrhage
Answer: A
,Rationale: A fundus that is high and deviated to the right usually indicates a distended
bladder, which can prevent the uterus from contracting properly.
6. According to Erikson, which developmental task is appropriate for a 2-year-
old toddler?
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Initiative vs. Guilt
C. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
D. Industry vs. Inferiority
Answer: C
Rationale: Toddlers (1-3 years) are in the Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage, focusing
on developing a sense of personal control.
7. A newborn has a heart rate of 110, a weak cry, some flexion of the
extremities, grimaces when stimulated, and a pink body with blue extremities.
What is the APGAR score?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C
Rationale: HR=2, Cry=1, Flexion=1, Grimace=1, Color=1. Total score = 6.
8. A child with Tetralogy of Fallot becomes cyanotic and dyspneic during a crying
fit. Which position should the nurse place the child in?
A. Knee-chest
B. Prone
C. High Fowler’s
D. Supine
Answer: A
, Rationale: The knee-chest position increases systemic vascular resistance, which
decreases the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation during a ‘Tet’ spell.
9. Which of the following is a common side effect of oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
for labor induction?
A. Maternal hypotension
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Fetal tachycardia
D. Uterine tachysystole
Answer: D
Rationale: Oxytocin can cause overly frequent or intense contractions (tachysystole),
which can lead to fetal distress.
10. A child is diagnosed with Celiac disease. Which food should the nurse
instruct the parents to avoid?
A. Corn bread
B. Rice cakes
C. Fresh fruit
D. Wheat crackers
Answer: D
Rationale: Celiac disease is a permanent intolerance to gluten, which is found in wheat,
barley, and rye.
11. Using Naegele’s rule, what is the Estimated Date of Delivery (EDD) for a
woman whose Last Menstrual Period (LMP) began on March 10th?
A. December 3rd
B. January 17th
C. December 17th
D. January 3rd
Answer: C
EXAM PACK 2026 |Actual Questions and
Answers |Guaranteed Pass |Galen College of
Nursing
1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation who presents
with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse
suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Placenta previa
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Abruptio placentae usually involves painful bleeding.
2. A 4-week-old infant is brought to the clinic for projectile vomiting after
feedings and constant hunger. Which condition is most likely?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Intussusception
D. Hirschsprung disease
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents between 3-6 weeks of life with
non-bile stained projectile vomiting and a palpable olive-shaped mass.
,3. Which medication is the primary treatment for preventing seizures in a client
with preeclampsia?
A. Labetalol
B. Nifedipine
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Terbutaline
Answer: C
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis (eclampsia) in
clients with preeclampsia.
4. A child is admitted with a diagnosis of Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis).
Which clinical finding is most characteristic of this condition?
A. High-pitched wheezing on expiration
B. Productive cough with thick green sputum
C. Barking cough and inspiratory stridor
D. Silent chest with no air movement
Answer: C
Rationale: Croup is characterized by edema of the larynx and trachea, resulting in a
distinct ‘seal-like’ barking cough and inspiratory stridor.
5. When assessing a postpartum client 24 hours after delivery, the nurse notes
the fundus is firm and two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the
right. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Ask the client to void or catheterize if necessary
B. Document this as a normal finding
C. Massage the fundus until it lowers
D. Notify the healthcare provider of a potential hemorrhage
Answer: A
,Rationale: A fundus that is high and deviated to the right usually indicates a distended
bladder, which can prevent the uterus from contracting properly.
6. According to Erikson, which developmental task is appropriate for a 2-year-
old toddler?
A. Trust vs. Mistrust
B. Initiative vs. Guilt
C. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
D. Industry vs. Inferiority
Answer: C
Rationale: Toddlers (1-3 years) are in the Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage, focusing
on developing a sense of personal control.
7. A newborn has a heart rate of 110, a weak cry, some flexion of the
extremities, grimaces when stimulated, and a pink body with blue extremities.
What is the APGAR score?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C
Rationale: HR=2, Cry=1, Flexion=1, Grimace=1, Color=1. Total score = 6.
8. A child with Tetralogy of Fallot becomes cyanotic and dyspneic during a crying
fit. Which position should the nurse place the child in?
A. Knee-chest
B. Prone
C. High Fowler’s
D. Supine
Answer: A
, Rationale: The knee-chest position increases systemic vascular resistance, which
decreases the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation during a ‘Tet’ spell.
9. Which of the following is a common side effect of oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
for labor induction?
A. Maternal hypotension
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Fetal tachycardia
D. Uterine tachysystole
Answer: D
Rationale: Oxytocin can cause overly frequent or intense contractions (tachysystole),
which can lead to fetal distress.
10. A child is diagnosed with Celiac disease. Which food should the nurse
instruct the parents to avoid?
A. Corn bread
B. Rice cakes
C. Fresh fruit
D. Wheat crackers
Answer: D
Rationale: Celiac disease is a permanent intolerance to gluten, which is found in wheat,
barley, and rye.
11. Using Naegele’s rule, what is the Estimated Date of Delivery (EDD) for a
woman whose Last Menstrual Period (LMP) began on March 10th?
A. December 3rd
B. January 17th
C. December 17th
D. January 3rd
Answer: C
