NR603 Week 1 Quiz
Neurology
2026/2027 | Newly Released | Complete Guide
50 Verified Questions and Answers
Q1: What is the maximum score a patient can achieve on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15 [CORRECT]
D. 18
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor
response, with a maximum score of 15 indicating a fully awake and oriented patient.
Q2: A 62-year-old patient presents with sudden onset right-sided hemiparesis and aphasia.
Symptoms began 45 minutes ago. CT scan shows no hemorrhage. According to current 2026
acute ischemic stroke guidelines, which intervention is the priority?
A. Administer aspirin 325 mg
B. Initiate intravenous alteplase (tPA)
C. Order a CT angiography to wait for results
D. Start a heparin drip
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV alteplase is indicated for acute ischemic stroke if given within 3 to 4.5 hours of
symptom onset and there is no contraindication, such as hemorrhage on the initial non-contrast
CT scan.
Q3: A 35-year-old male presents with severe, unilateral, periorbital pain that wakes him from
sleep. He notes tearing and nasal congestion on the affected side. These episodes last 30 to 45
minutes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Migraine without aura
B. Tension-type headache
C. Cluster headache
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral periorbital pain, autonomic
features like tearing and nasal congestion, and brief duration (15-180 minutes), often waking
patients from sleep.
Q4: A patient with a history of epilepsy is brought to the ER in convulsive status epilepticus.
Benzodiazepines were administered at 5 minutes and 15 minutes without seizure cessation.
Analyzing the current treatment algorithm, what is the next definitive step?
A. Administer a second dose of lorazepam
B. Intubate and provide general anesthesia
C. Load with intravenous fosphenytoin or valproate
D. Perform an emergent electroencephalogram (EEG)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: If seizures persist after initial benzodiazepine therapy (the stabilization phase), the
algorithm dictates moving to the second phase with an intravenous antiseizure medication load,
such as fosphenytoin, valproate, or levetiracetam.
, Q5: Which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) finding is most classic for bacterial meningitis?
A. Elevated lymphocytes, normal glucose, normal protein
B. Elevated polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs), low glucose, elevated protein
C. Elevated red blood cells, normal glucose, elevated protein
D. Normal cells, elevated glucose, low protein
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bacterial meningitis typically presents with a CSF profile of elevated PMNs,
decreased glucose, and elevated protein, distinguishing it from viral meningitis which shows a
lymphocytic predominance.
Q6: A 28-year-old graduate student reports a bilateral, band-like, pressing headache that has
occurred daily for the past two weeks during final exams. There is no nausea, photophobia, or
phonophobia. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for this patient?
A. Sumatriptan
B. Ibuprofen
C. Oxygen inhalation
D. Propranolol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tension-type headaches are typically treated with simple analgesics like NSAIDs
(ibuprofen) or acetaminophen. Triptans are for migraines, oxygen is for cluster headaches, and
propranolol is a prophylactic.
Q7: A 70-year-old patient presents with sudden severe headache, vomiting, and rapid loss of
consciousness. The advanced practice nurse expects which finding on the non-contrast CT scan?
A. Hyperdense middle cerebral artery (MCA) sign
B. Hypodense area in the vascular distribution
C. Hyperdense lesion in the basal ganglia or cerebellum
D. Diffuse symmetric hypodensity
Correct Answer: C
Neurology
2026/2027 | Newly Released | Complete Guide
50 Verified Questions and Answers
Q1: What is the maximum score a patient can achieve on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15 [CORRECT]
D. 18
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor
response, with a maximum score of 15 indicating a fully awake and oriented patient.
Q2: A 62-year-old patient presents with sudden onset right-sided hemiparesis and aphasia.
Symptoms began 45 minutes ago. CT scan shows no hemorrhage. According to current 2026
acute ischemic stroke guidelines, which intervention is the priority?
A. Administer aspirin 325 mg
B. Initiate intravenous alteplase (tPA)
C. Order a CT angiography to wait for results
D. Start a heparin drip
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV alteplase is indicated for acute ischemic stroke if given within 3 to 4.5 hours of
symptom onset and there is no contraindication, such as hemorrhage on the initial non-contrast
CT scan.
Q3: A 35-year-old male presents with severe, unilateral, periorbital pain that wakes him from
sleep. He notes tearing and nasal congestion on the affected side. These episodes last 30 to 45
minutes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Migraine without aura
B. Tension-type headache
C. Cluster headache
D. Trigeminal neuralgia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral periorbital pain, autonomic
features like tearing and nasal congestion, and brief duration (15-180 minutes), often waking
patients from sleep.
Q4: A patient with a history of epilepsy is brought to the ER in convulsive status epilepticus.
Benzodiazepines were administered at 5 minutes and 15 minutes without seizure cessation.
Analyzing the current treatment algorithm, what is the next definitive step?
A. Administer a second dose of lorazepam
B. Intubate and provide general anesthesia
C. Load with intravenous fosphenytoin or valproate
D. Perform an emergent electroencephalogram (EEG)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: If seizures persist after initial benzodiazepine therapy (the stabilization phase), the
algorithm dictates moving to the second phase with an intravenous antiseizure medication load,
such as fosphenytoin, valproate, or levetiracetam.
, Q5: Which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) finding is most classic for bacterial meningitis?
A. Elevated lymphocytes, normal glucose, normal protein
B. Elevated polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs), low glucose, elevated protein
C. Elevated red blood cells, normal glucose, elevated protein
D. Normal cells, elevated glucose, low protein
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bacterial meningitis typically presents with a CSF profile of elevated PMNs,
decreased glucose, and elevated protein, distinguishing it from viral meningitis which shows a
lymphocytic predominance.
Q6: A 28-year-old graduate student reports a bilateral, band-like, pressing headache that has
occurred daily for the past two weeks during final exams. There is no nausea, photophobia, or
phonophobia. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for this patient?
A. Sumatriptan
B. Ibuprofen
C. Oxygen inhalation
D. Propranolol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tension-type headaches are typically treated with simple analgesics like NSAIDs
(ibuprofen) or acetaminophen. Triptans are for migraines, oxygen is for cluster headaches, and
propranolol is a prophylactic.
Q7: A 70-year-old patient presents with sudden severe headache, vomiting, and rapid loss of
consciousness. The advanced practice nurse expects which finding on the non-contrast CT scan?
A. Hyperdense middle cerebral artery (MCA) sign
B. Hypodense area in the vascular distribution
C. Hyperdense lesion in the basal ganglia or cerebellum
D. Diffuse symmetric hypodensity
Correct Answer: C
