NUR 210 Exams 4 Pharmacology (2026)
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1. A patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. Which
instruction should the nurse prioritize?
A. Take with antacids to prevent GI upset
B. Avoid dairy products within 2 hours of dosing
C. Expect orange discoloration of urine
D. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Ciprofloxacin (a fluoroquinolone) chelates with divalent
cations like calcium, magnesium, and aluminum found in dairy products,
antacids, and supplements, reducing absorption by up to 90%. Patients should
take ciprofloxacin either 2 hours before or 4-6 hours after these products.
Orange urine is typical with rifampin, not ciprofloxacin. Potassium intake is
unaffected. GI upset is common but not prevented by antacids—antacids
worsen absorption. Nurses must space medications correctly to ensure
therapeutic levels and prevent treatment failure.
2. A nurse monitors a patient receiving IV vancomycin. Which finding requires
immediate action?
A. Flushing and rash on the upper body
B. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL
C. Infiltration of the IV site
D. Tinnitus and headache
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Vancomycin is nephrotoxic and ototoxic. A serum
creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL (normal ~0.6-1.2) indicates acute kidney injury,
requiring immediate dose adjustment or discontinuation. Flushing and rash
(Red Man Syndrome) is managed by slowing the infusion, not an emergency
, unless severe hypotension. IV infiltration is site-specific and requires restarting
the line. Tinnitus/headache could indicate ototoxicity, but kidney injury is more
immediately dangerous and common. Nurses must monitor trough levels and
creatinine before each dose.
3. A patient on isoniazid for tuberculosis reports tingling in the fingers. What is
the nurse’s best response?
A. “Stop the medication and call your doctor.”
B. “This is a common side effect; take vitamin B6.”
C. “Increase your fluid intake to flush out toxins.”
D. “Apply ice packs to your hands twice daily.”
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Isoniazid (INH) causes peripheral neuropathy by
interfering with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) metabolism. Supplementing B6 (usually
25-50 mg/day) prevents or reverses this symptom. Stopping INH risks drug-
resistant TB. Increased fluids or ice packs do not address the mechanism.
Nurses should educate patients on recognizing numbness/tingling and
emphasize adherence while taking B6 as prescribed.
4. Which medication requires the patient to avoid alcohol due to a disulfiram-
like reaction?
A. Doxycycline
B. Metronidazole
C. Acyclovir
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Metronidazole (Flagyl) inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase,
causing acetaldehyde accumulation when alcohol is consumed. This leads to
severe nausea, vomiting, flushing, headache, and hypotension. Patients must
avoid alcohol during therapy and for at least 48-72 hours after the last dose.
Doxycycline is affected by dairy/antacids, not alcohol. Acyclovir is for herpes
viruses; alcohol worsens dehydration but no disulfiram reaction. TMP-SMX may
cause photosensitivity and GI upset but not this specific reaction.
5. A patient is prescribed azithromycin for community-acquired pneumonia.
Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A. “I can stop once I feel better, usually after 2 days.”
PDF | Galen College of Nursing Questions
and Ansẉers with
Expert-Verified Explanation 2026\2027
update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
, Expert-Verified Explanation
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1. A patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. Which
instruction should the nurse prioritize?
A. Take with antacids to prevent GI upset
B. Avoid dairy products within 2 hours of dosing
C. Expect orange discoloration of urine
D. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Ciprofloxacin (a fluoroquinolone) chelates with divalent
cations like calcium, magnesium, and aluminum found in dairy products,
antacids, and supplements, reducing absorption by up to 90%. Patients should
take ciprofloxacin either 2 hours before or 4-6 hours after these products.
Orange urine is typical with rifampin, not ciprofloxacin. Potassium intake is
unaffected. GI upset is common but not prevented by antacids—antacids
worsen absorption. Nurses must space medications correctly to ensure
therapeutic levels and prevent treatment failure.
2. A nurse monitors a patient receiving IV vancomycin. Which finding requires
immediate action?
A. Flushing and rash on the upper body
B. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL
C. Infiltration of the IV site
D. Tinnitus and headache
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Vancomycin is nephrotoxic and ototoxic. A serum
creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL (normal ~0.6-1.2) indicates acute kidney injury,
requiring immediate dose adjustment or discontinuation. Flushing and rash
(Red Man Syndrome) is managed by slowing the infusion, not an emergency
, unless severe hypotension. IV infiltration is site-specific and requires restarting
the line. Tinnitus/headache could indicate ototoxicity, but kidney injury is more
immediately dangerous and common. Nurses must monitor trough levels and
creatinine before each dose.
3. A patient on isoniazid for tuberculosis reports tingling in the fingers. What is
the nurse’s best response?
A. “Stop the medication and call your doctor.”
B. “This is a common side effect; take vitamin B6.”
C. “Increase your fluid intake to flush out toxins.”
D. “Apply ice packs to your hands twice daily.”
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Isoniazid (INH) causes peripheral neuropathy by
interfering with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) metabolism. Supplementing B6 (usually
25-50 mg/day) prevents or reverses this symptom. Stopping INH risks drug-
resistant TB. Increased fluids or ice packs do not address the mechanism.
Nurses should educate patients on recognizing numbness/tingling and
emphasize adherence while taking B6 as prescribed.
4. Which medication requires the patient to avoid alcohol due to a disulfiram-
like reaction?
A. Doxycycline
B. Metronidazole
C. Acyclovir
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Metronidazole (Flagyl) inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase,
causing acetaldehyde accumulation when alcohol is consumed. This leads to
severe nausea, vomiting, flushing, headache, and hypotension. Patients must
avoid alcohol during therapy and for at least 48-72 hours after the last dose.
Doxycycline is affected by dairy/antacids, not alcohol. Acyclovir is for herpes
viruses; alcohol worsens dehydration but no disulfiram reaction. TMP-SMX may
cause photosensitivity and GI upset but not this specific reaction.
5. A patient is prescribed azithromycin for community-acquired pneumonia.
Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A. “I can stop once I feel better, usually after 2 days.”
