ATI CBC LEVEL 3 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS | 100%
CORRECT/NEWEST UPDATE!!!
Question 1
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has neutropenia following chemotherapy.
Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A) Canned soup
B) Fully cooked steak
C) Fresh watermelon
D) Pasteurized milk
E) Baked potatoes
Correct Answer: C) Fresh watermelon
Rationale: Clients with neutropenia are at high risk for infection. They must follow a low-
microbial diet, which involves avoiding raw fruits and vegetables, undercooked meats, and
unpasteurized dairy, as these items may contain bacteria that the client's immune system
cannot fight.
Question 2
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving heparin therapy. Which of the
following aPTT values indicates that the client is within the expected reference range?
A) 15 seconds
B) 25 seconds
C) 35 seconds
D) 55 seconds
E) 80 seconds
Correct Answer: C) 35 seconds
Rationale: The normal reference range for activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is
typically 30 to 40 seconds. For clients on heparin therapy, the therapeutic goal is usually 1.5
to 2.5 times the normal value, but the question asks for the standard normal range
provided in the notes.
Question 3
A client is suspected of having melanoma. When performing a skin assessment, which of the
following findings is consistent with the "A" in the ABCDE mnemonic?
A) An area with multiple shades of brown and black
B) A border that is notched or ragged
C) A lesion where one half does not match the other half
D) A diameter greater than 6 mm
E) A mole that has recently changed shape or size
Correct Answer: C) A lesion where one half does not match the other half
Rationale: The ABCDE mnemonic stands for Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, and
Evolving. Asymmetry (A) occurs when the two halves of a mole or lesion do not match in
shape.
, 2
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client for Stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease. Which of the following
manifestations should the nurse expect?
A) Occasional lapses in memory such as misplacing keys
B) Inability to converse with others
C) Forgetting events of one’s own personal history
D) Total urinary and fecal incontinence
E) Difficulty remembering material just read
Correct Answer: C) Forgetting events of one’s own personal history
Rationale: Stage 2 Alzheimer’s (moderate) is characterized by significant cognitive decline,
including forgetting personal history, personality changes, and difficulty performing tasks
that require planning and organization.
Question 5
A nurse is preparing to administer immunizations to a 2-month-old infant. Which of the
following vaccines should the nurse anticipate administering?
A) MMR, Varicella, Hib
B) Hib, Pneumococcal, Rotavirus, DTaP, IPV, Hep B
C) Hep A, DTaP, Hib, IPV
D) Varicella, Pneumococcal, MMR
E) IPV, MMR, Hep B, Rotavirus
Correct Answer: B) Hib, Pneumococcal, Rotavirus, DTaP, IPV, Hep B
Rationale: According to the standard CDC/ATI immunization schedule, at 2 months of age,
infants receive their first doses of DTaP, Hib, IPV, PCV (Pneumococcal), and Rotavirus,
along with the second dose of Hep B.
Question 6
Which tool should a nurse use specifically to assess a client for the presence of delirium?
A) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
B) Global Deterioration Scale (GDS)
C) Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)
D) Brief Interview for Mental Status (BIMS)
E) Functional Dementia Scale
Correct Answer: C) Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)
Rationale: The CAM is the gold standard for identifying the presence of delirium,
distinguishing it from other forms of cognitive impairment like dementia.
Question 7
A client with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "The FBI is tracking my thoughts through the
television." The nurse should document this as which of the following?
A) A negative symptom
, 3
B) A cognitive symptom
C) A positive symptom
D) An alogia symptom
E) An avolition symptom
Correct Answer: C) A positive symptom
Rationale: Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are "additions" to normal behavior,
including delusions (false beliefs) and hallucinations (false sensory perceptions). Negative
symptoms involve "deficits," such as blunted affect or lack of motivation.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the end stages of Alzheimer’s disease (Stage 3). Which of
the following is a characteristic finding of this stage?
A) Losing ability to converse with others
B) Losing a wallet or purse frequently
C) Difficulty with complex planning
D) Short-term memory loss noticeable only to close relations
E) Forgetting how to perform one's occupation
Correct Answer: A) Losing ability to converse with others
Rationale: Stage 3 (Severe) Alzheimer's involves the loss of ability to respond to the
environment, converse with others, and ultimately control movement. Clients at this stage
usually require total assistance with ADLs.
Question 9
What is the normal range for Prothrombin Time (PTT)?
A) 11-12.5 seconds
B) 20-30 seconds
C) 30-40 seconds
D) 60-70 seconds
E) 90-120 seconds
Correct Answer: D) 60-70 seconds
Rationale: The normal range for PTT is 60 to 70 seconds. This is distinct from the aPTT,
which is 30 to 40 seconds. Monitoring these values is critical for clients receiving
anticoagulant therapy.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for an adolescent with Hemophilia A. Which of the following laboratory results
should the nurse expect?
A) Platelet count of 100,000/mm³
B) Prothrombin time (PT) of 25 seconds
C) Prolonged aPTT
D) Decreased WBC count
, 4
E) Shortened clotting time
Correct Answer: C) Prolonged aPTT
Rationale: Hemophilia A is a deficiency in Factor VIII, which affects the intrinsic pathway
of coagulation. This results in a prolonged aPTT, while PT and platelet counts typically
remain within normal limits.
Question 11
A client is receiving methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider as a potential toxic effect?
A) Increased appetite
B) Jaundice
C) Tachycardia
D) Weight gain
E) Constipation
Correct Answer: B) Jaundice
Rationale: Methotrexate can be hepatotoxic. Jaundice, abdominal fullness, and anorexia are
signs of liver damage and must be reported immediately.
Question 12
A nurse is providing teaching for a client to prevent melanoma. Which of the following
instructions should be included?
A) Tanning beds are a safe alternative to sun exposure
B) Apply sunscreen 5 minutes before going outside
C) Avoid sun exposure between 1000 and 1500
D) Reapply sunscreen every 4 hours
E) Sunscreen is not needed near reflective surfaces like water
Correct Answer: C) Avoid sun exposure between 1000 and 1500
Rationale: The sun's UV rays are strongest between 10:00 AM and 3:00 PM (1000-1500).
Clients should also apply sunscreen at least 30 minutes before exposure and reapply every 2
hours.
Question 13
Which of the following describes the "negative symptoms" of schizophrenia?
A) Hallucinations and Delusions
B) Bizarre behavior and Flight of ideas
C) Blunted affect, alogia, and avolition
D) Disorganized speech and Paranoia
E) Agitation and pressured speech
Correct Answer: C) Blunted affect, alogia, and avolition
Rationale: Negative symptoms represent a loss of normal function. Alogia is poverty of
speech, and avolition is a lack of motivation or drive to complete tasks.
CORRECT/NEWEST UPDATE!!!
Question 1
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has neutropenia following chemotherapy.
Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A) Canned soup
B) Fully cooked steak
C) Fresh watermelon
D) Pasteurized milk
E) Baked potatoes
Correct Answer: C) Fresh watermelon
Rationale: Clients with neutropenia are at high risk for infection. They must follow a low-
microbial diet, which involves avoiding raw fruits and vegetables, undercooked meats, and
unpasteurized dairy, as these items may contain bacteria that the client's immune system
cannot fight.
Question 2
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving heparin therapy. Which of the
following aPTT values indicates that the client is within the expected reference range?
A) 15 seconds
B) 25 seconds
C) 35 seconds
D) 55 seconds
E) 80 seconds
Correct Answer: C) 35 seconds
Rationale: The normal reference range for activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is
typically 30 to 40 seconds. For clients on heparin therapy, the therapeutic goal is usually 1.5
to 2.5 times the normal value, but the question asks for the standard normal range
provided in the notes.
Question 3
A client is suspected of having melanoma. When performing a skin assessment, which of the
following findings is consistent with the "A" in the ABCDE mnemonic?
A) An area with multiple shades of brown and black
B) A border that is notched or ragged
C) A lesion where one half does not match the other half
D) A diameter greater than 6 mm
E) A mole that has recently changed shape or size
Correct Answer: C) A lesion where one half does not match the other half
Rationale: The ABCDE mnemonic stands for Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, and
Evolving. Asymmetry (A) occurs when the two halves of a mole or lesion do not match in
shape.
, 2
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client for Stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease. Which of the following
manifestations should the nurse expect?
A) Occasional lapses in memory such as misplacing keys
B) Inability to converse with others
C) Forgetting events of one’s own personal history
D) Total urinary and fecal incontinence
E) Difficulty remembering material just read
Correct Answer: C) Forgetting events of one’s own personal history
Rationale: Stage 2 Alzheimer’s (moderate) is characterized by significant cognitive decline,
including forgetting personal history, personality changes, and difficulty performing tasks
that require planning and organization.
Question 5
A nurse is preparing to administer immunizations to a 2-month-old infant. Which of the
following vaccines should the nurse anticipate administering?
A) MMR, Varicella, Hib
B) Hib, Pneumococcal, Rotavirus, DTaP, IPV, Hep B
C) Hep A, DTaP, Hib, IPV
D) Varicella, Pneumococcal, MMR
E) IPV, MMR, Hep B, Rotavirus
Correct Answer: B) Hib, Pneumococcal, Rotavirus, DTaP, IPV, Hep B
Rationale: According to the standard CDC/ATI immunization schedule, at 2 months of age,
infants receive their first doses of DTaP, Hib, IPV, PCV (Pneumococcal), and Rotavirus,
along with the second dose of Hep B.
Question 6
Which tool should a nurse use specifically to assess a client for the presence of delirium?
A) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
B) Global Deterioration Scale (GDS)
C) Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)
D) Brief Interview for Mental Status (BIMS)
E) Functional Dementia Scale
Correct Answer: C) Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)
Rationale: The CAM is the gold standard for identifying the presence of delirium,
distinguishing it from other forms of cognitive impairment like dementia.
Question 7
A client with schizophrenia tells the nurse, "The FBI is tracking my thoughts through the
television." The nurse should document this as which of the following?
A) A negative symptom
, 3
B) A cognitive symptom
C) A positive symptom
D) An alogia symptom
E) An avolition symptom
Correct Answer: C) A positive symptom
Rationale: Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are "additions" to normal behavior,
including delusions (false beliefs) and hallucinations (false sensory perceptions). Negative
symptoms involve "deficits," such as blunted affect or lack of motivation.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client who is in the end stages of Alzheimer’s disease (Stage 3). Which of
the following is a characteristic finding of this stage?
A) Losing ability to converse with others
B) Losing a wallet or purse frequently
C) Difficulty with complex planning
D) Short-term memory loss noticeable only to close relations
E) Forgetting how to perform one's occupation
Correct Answer: A) Losing ability to converse with others
Rationale: Stage 3 (Severe) Alzheimer's involves the loss of ability to respond to the
environment, converse with others, and ultimately control movement. Clients at this stage
usually require total assistance with ADLs.
Question 9
What is the normal range for Prothrombin Time (PTT)?
A) 11-12.5 seconds
B) 20-30 seconds
C) 30-40 seconds
D) 60-70 seconds
E) 90-120 seconds
Correct Answer: D) 60-70 seconds
Rationale: The normal range for PTT is 60 to 70 seconds. This is distinct from the aPTT,
which is 30 to 40 seconds. Monitoring these values is critical for clients receiving
anticoagulant therapy.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for an adolescent with Hemophilia A. Which of the following laboratory results
should the nurse expect?
A) Platelet count of 100,000/mm³
B) Prothrombin time (PT) of 25 seconds
C) Prolonged aPTT
D) Decreased WBC count
, 4
E) Shortened clotting time
Correct Answer: C) Prolonged aPTT
Rationale: Hemophilia A is a deficiency in Factor VIII, which affects the intrinsic pathway
of coagulation. This results in a prolonged aPTT, while PT and platelet counts typically
remain within normal limits.
Question 11
A client is receiving methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider as a potential toxic effect?
A) Increased appetite
B) Jaundice
C) Tachycardia
D) Weight gain
E) Constipation
Correct Answer: B) Jaundice
Rationale: Methotrexate can be hepatotoxic. Jaundice, abdominal fullness, and anorexia are
signs of liver damage and must be reported immediately.
Question 12
A nurse is providing teaching for a client to prevent melanoma. Which of the following
instructions should be included?
A) Tanning beds are a safe alternative to sun exposure
B) Apply sunscreen 5 minutes before going outside
C) Avoid sun exposure between 1000 and 1500
D) Reapply sunscreen every 4 hours
E) Sunscreen is not needed near reflective surfaces like water
Correct Answer: C) Avoid sun exposure between 1000 and 1500
Rationale: The sun's UV rays are strongest between 10:00 AM and 3:00 PM (1000-1500).
Clients should also apply sunscreen at least 30 minutes before exposure and reapply every 2
hours.
Question 13
Which of the following describes the "negative symptoms" of schizophrenia?
A) Hallucinations and Delusions
B) Bizarre behavior and Flight of ideas
C) Blunted affect, alogia, and avolition
D) Disorganized speech and Paranoia
E) Agitation and pressured speech
Correct Answer: C) Blunted affect, alogia, and avolition
Rationale: Negative symptoms represent a loss of normal function. Alogia is poverty of
speech, and avolition is a lack of motivation or drive to complete tasks.
