WGU C810 OA FINAL/WGU C810 FOUNDATIONS IN HEALTHCARE DATA MANAGEMENT
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT FINAL NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM/NEWEST UPDATE!!!
Question 1
Which form of review is conducted after a patient is discharged from an acute care facility to
identify trends and patterns in documentation?
A) Open-record review
B) Concurrent review
C) Closed-record review
D) Qualitative analysis
E) Delinquent record review
Correct Answer: C) Closed-record review
Rationale: A closed-record review is performed after the patient has been discharged and
the record is complete. Its primary purpose is to look back at the entire episode of care to
identify trends, patterns, and areas for improvement in documentation.
Question 2
What is a fundamental documentation guideline that HIM professionals must follow for both
paper and electronic health records?
A) Records should be stored in a public cloud.
B) Only physicians are allowed to document.
C) Original documents should be maintained in the health record.
D) Errors should be completely erased or whited out.
E) Records should be destroyed every three years.
Correct Answer: C) Original documents should be maintained in the health record.
Rationale: Legal and professional standards require that the original entry or document be
preserved. If corrections are needed, the original must remain visible to maintain the
integrity and legal admissibility of the record.
Question 3
A physician’s note detailing a cardiac catheterization examination is an example of which type of
data?
A) Structured data
B) Quantitative data
C) Unstructured data
) Discrete data
E) Categorical data
Correct Answer: C) Unstructured data
Rationale: Unstructured data is information that does not reside in a fixed location or a
standardized field. Narrative notes, such as a procedure description, are unstructured
because they follow the physician's free-form clinical narrative.
, 2
Question 4
A paragraph within a physician's order specifies information regarding a patient's discharge plan.
This type of data is classified as:
A) Structured
B) Coded
C) Unstructured
D) Aggregate
E) Secondary
Correct Answer: C) Unstructured
Rationale: Free-text paragraphs or narrative descriptions lack a predefined data model or
organization, making them unstructured data, which is more difficult for systems to
analyze automatically compared to discrete data.
Question 5
A health information manager is tasked with the proper destruction of records once the legal
retention period has expired. Which Information Governance principle does this fulfill?
A) Accountability
B) Integrity
C) Disposition
D) Protection
E) Availability
Correct Answer: C) Disposition
Rationale: The principle of Disposition focuses on the legal and safe disposal of records that
are no longer required to be maintained, ensuring the facility follows state and federal laws
regarding record lifecycles.
Question 6
A hospital implements a new token-based system to access the EHR to improve data security.
This is an application of which Information Governance principle?
A) Transparency
B) Compliance
C) Protection
D) Retention
E) Accessibility
Correct Answer: C) Protection
Rationale: The principle of Protection ensures that the healthcare organization guards
private and confidential information from unauthorized access, breaches, or loss through
security measures like tokens or encryption.
Question 7
A physician requests a paper record to complete a discharge summary that is 28 days past due,
, 3
but the record has already been sent to off-site storage. Which record-keeping principle is most
relevant here?
A) Transparency
B) Accountability
C) Availability
D) Retention
E) Precision
Correct Answer: C) Availability
Rationale: The principle of Availability dictates that information must be maintained in a
manner that ensures it is timely, accurate, and efficient to retrieve when needed for patient
care or administrative tasks.
Question 8
What is identified during a stakeholder analysis of a data governance system?
A) The cost of the EHR software
B) The needs of those interested in the data
C) The exact date of record destruction
D) The number of beds in the facility
E) The clinical diagnosis of the patients
Correct Answer: B) Needs of those interested in the data
Rationale: Stakeholder analysis identifies all parties who have an interest in the data (e.g.,
patients, providers, IT, administration) and ensures the governance system meets their
specific requirements and expectations.
Question 9
Which federal organization requires the reporting of medical malpractice payments and adverse
clinical privilege actions against practitioners?
A) The Joint Commission
B) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
C) National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)
D) Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
E) Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
Correct Answer: C) National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)
Rationale: The NPDB is a national database that stores information on the professional
conduct and competence of healthcare practitioners, including licensure actions and
malpractice payments.
Question 10
What is the primary objective of the CMS Recovery Audit Contractor (RAC) program?
A) To increase patient satisfaction scores
B) To reduce Medicare improper payments
, 4
C) To mandate the use of paper records
D) To eliminate the need for coding
E) To provide free healthcare to the uninsured
Correct Answer: B) To reduce Medicare improper payments
Rationale: RACs are external auditors who review claims to identify and recover
overpayments and identify underpayments made on claims for healthcare services
provided to Medicare beneficiaries.
Question 11
The Conditions of Participation (CoP) require all home health agencies to electronically report
which specific assessment?
A) MDS
B) HHRG
C) OASIS
D) CARF
E) UHDDS
Correct Answer: C) OASIS
Rationale: The Outcomes and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) is a standardized data
set used by home health agencies to track patient outcomes and facilitate reimbursement
through CMS.
Question 12
To which organization must a "sentinel event" (an unexpected occurrence involving death or
serious injury) be reported?
A) National Library of Medicine
B) Centers for Disease Control
C) The Joint Commission
D) World Health Organization
E) Office of the Inspector General
Correct Answer: C) The Joint Commission
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires accredited organizations to report sentinel events
so that root cause analyses can be performed to prevent future occurrences and improve
patient safety.
Question 13
Which health information exchange (HIE) model describes data flowing to multiple regional
clinical data repositories (CDRs) with requested records managed by a regional authority?
A) Centralized
B) Hybrid
C) Federated
D) Peer-to-peer
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT FINAL NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM/NEWEST UPDATE!!!
Question 1
Which form of review is conducted after a patient is discharged from an acute care facility to
identify trends and patterns in documentation?
A) Open-record review
B) Concurrent review
C) Closed-record review
D) Qualitative analysis
E) Delinquent record review
Correct Answer: C) Closed-record review
Rationale: A closed-record review is performed after the patient has been discharged and
the record is complete. Its primary purpose is to look back at the entire episode of care to
identify trends, patterns, and areas for improvement in documentation.
Question 2
What is a fundamental documentation guideline that HIM professionals must follow for both
paper and electronic health records?
A) Records should be stored in a public cloud.
B) Only physicians are allowed to document.
C) Original documents should be maintained in the health record.
D) Errors should be completely erased or whited out.
E) Records should be destroyed every three years.
Correct Answer: C) Original documents should be maintained in the health record.
Rationale: Legal and professional standards require that the original entry or document be
preserved. If corrections are needed, the original must remain visible to maintain the
integrity and legal admissibility of the record.
Question 3
A physician’s note detailing a cardiac catheterization examination is an example of which type of
data?
A) Structured data
B) Quantitative data
C) Unstructured data
) Discrete data
E) Categorical data
Correct Answer: C) Unstructured data
Rationale: Unstructured data is information that does not reside in a fixed location or a
standardized field. Narrative notes, such as a procedure description, are unstructured
because they follow the physician's free-form clinical narrative.
, 2
Question 4
A paragraph within a physician's order specifies information regarding a patient's discharge plan.
This type of data is classified as:
A) Structured
B) Coded
C) Unstructured
D) Aggregate
E) Secondary
Correct Answer: C) Unstructured
Rationale: Free-text paragraphs or narrative descriptions lack a predefined data model or
organization, making them unstructured data, which is more difficult for systems to
analyze automatically compared to discrete data.
Question 5
A health information manager is tasked with the proper destruction of records once the legal
retention period has expired. Which Information Governance principle does this fulfill?
A) Accountability
B) Integrity
C) Disposition
D) Protection
E) Availability
Correct Answer: C) Disposition
Rationale: The principle of Disposition focuses on the legal and safe disposal of records that
are no longer required to be maintained, ensuring the facility follows state and federal laws
regarding record lifecycles.
Question 6
A hospital implements a new token-based system to access the EHR to improve data security.
This is an application of which Information Governance principle?
A) Transparency
B) Compliance
C) Protection
D) Retention
E) Accessibility
Correct Answer: C) Protection
Rationale: The principle of Protection ensures that the healthcare organization guards
private and confidential information from unauthorized access, breaches, or loss through
security measures like tokens or encryption.
Question 7
A physician requests a paper record to complete a discharge summary that is 28 days past due,
, 3
but the record has already been sent to off-site storage. Which record-keeping principle is most
relevant here?
A) Transparency
B) Accountability
C) Availability
D) Retention
E) Precision
Correct Answer: C) Availability
Rationale: The principle of Availability dictates that information must be maintained in a
manner that ensures it is timely, accurate, and efficient to retrieve when needed for patient
care or administrative tasks.
Question 8
What is identified during a stakeholder analysis of a data governance system?
A) The cost of the EHR software
B) The needs of those interested in the data
C) The exact date of record destruction
D) The number of beds in the facility
E) The clinical diagnosis of the patients
Correct Answer: B) Needs of those interested in the data
Rationale: Stakeholder analysis identifies all parties who have an interest in the data (e.g.,
patients, providers, IT, administration) and ensures the governance system meets their
specific requirements and expectations.
Question 9
Which federal organization requires the reporting of medical malpractice payments and adverse
clinical privilege actions against practitioners?
A) The Joint Commission
B) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
C) National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)
D) Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
E) Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
Correct Answer: C) National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)
Rationale: The NPDB is a national database that stores information on the professional
conduct and competence of healthcare practitioners, including licensure actions and
malpractice payments.
Question 10
What is the primary objective of the CMS Recovery Audit Contractor (RAC) program?
A) To increase patient satisfaction scores
B) To reduce Medicare improper payments
, 4
C) To mandate the use of paper records
D) To eliminate the need for coding
E) To provide free healthcare to the uninsured
Correct Answer: B) To reduce Medicare improper payments
Rationale: RACs are external auditors who review claims to identify and recover
overpayments and identify underpayments made on claims for healthcare services
provided to Medicare beneficiaries.
Question 11
The Conditions of Participation (CoP) require all home health agencies to electronically report
which specific assessment?
A) MDS
B) HHRG
C) OASIS
D) CARF
E) UHDDS
Correct Answer: C) OASIS
Rationale: The Outcomes and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) is a standardized data
set used by home health agencies to track patient outcomes and facilitate reimbursement
through CMS.
Question 12
To which organization must a "sentinel event" (an unexpected occurrence involving death or
serious injury) be reported?
A) National Library of Medicine
B) Centers for Disease Control
C) The Joint Commission
D) World Health Organization
E) Office of the Inspector General
Correct Answer: C) The Joint Commission
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires accredited organizations to report sentinel events
so that root cause analyses can be performed to prevent future occurrences and improve
patient safety.
Question 13
Which health information exchange (HIE) model describes data flowing to multiple regional
clinical data repositories (CDRs) with requested records managed by a regional authority?
A) Centralized
B) Hybrid
C) Federated
D) Peer-to-peer
