ATI Fundamentals Remediation Exam ATI
Nursing Education Actual Exam 2026/2027
with Detailed Rationales | Complete
Exam-Style Questions | Pass Guaranteed –
A+ Graded
Safety & Infection Control (Questions 1–15)
Q1: A nurse enters the room of a patient who is on Contact Precautions for methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). After performing morning care and removing the soiled gloves,
which action demonstrates correct hand hygiene technique?
A. The nurse applies an alcohol-based hand rub because the hands are not visibly soiled and rubs
until completely dry.
B. The nurse washes with soap and water for 10 seconds, turns off the faucet with bare hands, and
leaves the room. [CORRECT]
C. The nurse applies an alcohol-based hand rub for 15 seconds while still wearing the isolation
gown, then removes the gown.
D. The nurse washes with soap and water for at least 20 seconds, cleans all surfaces, and turns off
the faucet using a paper towel.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best answer is D. ATI Fundamentals teaches that when leaving the room of a
patient on Contact Precautions, you should perform hand hygiene after removing PPE. If hands are
visibly soiled or you have been caring for a patient with C. difficile, wash with soap and water for at
least 20 seconds, clean all surfaces including under nails, and use a paper towel to turn off the
faucet. Since MRSA does not form spores, alcohol-based hand rub is acceptable if hands are not
visibly soiled, but option A is incorrect because it happens before gown removal. The standard of
care requires removing the gown and gloves before hand hygiene and using proper technique.
Q2: A patient admitted with severe diarrhea is confirmed to have Clostridioides difficile infection.
Which isolation precautions and PPE are required for entering this patient's room?
,A. Droplet Precautions with a surgical mask and eye protection within three feet of the patient.
B. Airborne Precautions with an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room.
C. Contact Precautions with a gown and gloves, plus dedicated equipment and soap-and-water
hand hygiene. [CORRECT]
D. Standard Precautions only, with alcohol-based hand rub after glove removal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. Clostridioides difficile requires Contact Precautions because it is
transmitted by spores that are resistant to alcohol-based hand rubs. ATI Fundamentals emphasizes
that you must wear a gown and gloves, use dedicated equipment, and perform hand hygiene with
soap and water when entering and leaving the room. Alcohol-based hand rub does not kill C.
difficile spores, so it is not sufficient for this organism.
Q3: The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis who is awaiting test
results. The patient is placed in an isolation room. Which combination of precautions and room
requirements is appropriate?
A. Droplet Precautions in a private room with the door closed; a surgical mask is required when
entering.
B. Airborne Precautions in a negative-pressure room with an N95 respirator or PAPR for all staff
entering. [CORRECT]
C. Contact Precautions with a gown, gloves, and a private room; hand hygiene with alcohol-based
rub is acceptable.
D. Standard Precautions only because tuberculosis is not confirmed; use a surgical mask if the
patient is coughing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei,
so Airborne Precautions are required. ATI Fundamentals teaches that this means placing the
patient in a negative-pressure room and wearing an N95 respirator or powered air-purifying
respirator for all personnel entering the room. The door should remain closed to maintain negative
pressure, and the patient should wear a surgical mask if transported outside the room.
Q4: A patient receiving chemotherapy has an absolute neutrophil count of 400 cells/mm³. Which
environmental modification does the nurse implement to maintain protective precautions?
A. Place fresh flowers in the room to improve mood and keep a small fruit basket on the bedside
table.
B. Allow live plants in the room because they improve air quality and patient satisfaction.
C. Ensure a private room with positive air pressure, HEPA filtration, and prohibit fresh flowers, fruit,
and live plants. [CORRECT]
D. Place the patient in a negative-pressure room to prevent the spread of infection to other
patients.
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: The best answer is C. Neutropenic precautions, or protective environment, require a
private room with positive air pressure and HEPA filtration to protect the immunocompromised
patient from environmental pathogens. ATI Fundamentals teaches that fresh flowers, fruit, and live
plants are prohibited because they harbor mold and bacteria. A negative-pressure room is used for
patients who are infectious to others, not for patients who need protection from the environment.
Q5: During the night shift, a nurse finds an 82-year-old patient on the floor next to the bed. The
patient was admitted two days ago for dehydration and has a history of orthostatic hypotension.
Which intervention should the nurse implement first to prevent future falls?
A. Apply bilateral soft wrist restraints to keep the patient in bed during the night.
B. Place the bed in the lowest position, lock the wheels, keep the call light within reach, and ensure
nonskid footwear. [CORRECT]
C. Move the patient to a room closer to the nurses' station and dim the lights to promote sleep.
D. Ask the provider to order a sedative at bedtime to keep the patient from attempting to ambulate
alone.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. ATI Fundamentals emphasizes that fall prevention strategies
should be the least restrictive first. Placing the bed in the lowest position, ensuring wheels are
locked, keeping the call light within reach, and providing nonskid footwear are standard,
evidence-based interventions. Restraints and chemical sedation are never first-line interventions
and should not be used for staff convenience. Moving the room may help but does not address the
immediate environmental hazards.
Q6: A provider writes an order for physical restraints on an agitated patient who is pulling at their IV
line. The nurse knows that which statement about restraint use is accurate?
A. Restraint orders must be renewed every 4 hours for adults and the nurse must check the patient
every hour.
B. Restraints can be applied by the nurse without a provider order if the situation is emergent, and
the order can be obtained later within 24 hours.
C. The nurse should use the least restrictive alternative first, obtain an order, and perform checks
every 15-30 minutes with frequent range-of-motion exercises. [CORRECT]
D. A sitter is considered a form of chemical restraint and requires the same documentation as wrist
restraints.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. ATI Fundamentals teaches that restraints—physical or
chemical—require using the least restrictive alternative first, obtaining a provider order, and
reassessing the patient frequently. For adults, orders are typically renewed every 24 hours, and
the nurse must check the patient and offer ROM every 15-30 minutes. Restraints are never used
, for staff convenience or punishment, and a sitter is not a chemical restraint; it is a less restrictive
alternative.
Q7: A patient with a history of epilepsy begins having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure while sitting
in a chair. Which set of nursing actions is the priority during the active seizure?
A. Insert an oral airway to prevent tongue biting, restrain the patient's limbs to prevent injury, and
call for help.
B. Lower the patient to the floor, protect the head, turn the patient to the side, and time the seizure;
do not insert anything in the mouth. [CORRECT]
C. Move furniture away, place a pillow under the patient's head, and administer rectal diazepam
immediately.
D. Call a code blue, begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and prepare the crash cart for possible
intubation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. During a seizure, the standard of care requires protecting the
patient from injury by lowering them to the floor, protecting the head, and turning them to the side
to maintain the airway. You should never insert anything into the mouth or restrain limbs. ATI
Fundamentals emphasizes timing the seizure and staying with the patient until the post-ictal phase.
CPR is not indicated unless the patient is pulseless.
Q8: The nurse is preparing to insert a Foley catheter. In terms of aseptic technique, the nurse
recognizes that catheter insertion requires which level of asepsis?
A. Medical asepsis with clean gloves and a clean field, because the urinary tract is not considered
sterile.
B. Surgical asepsis with sterile gloves, a sterile field, and sterile drapes to eliminate all
microorganisms. [CORRECT]
C. Contact Precautions with a gown and gloves because the patient has a history of urinary tract
infections.
D. Standard Precautions only, because the bladder maintains its own sterility through urine flow.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Inserting a Foley catheter is an invasive procedure that enters a
sterile body cavity, so surgical asepsis—sterile technique—is required. ATI Fundamentals teaches
that sterile gloves, a sterile field, and sterile drapes are necessary to prevent introducing
organisms into the urinary tract. Medical asepsis is used for noninvasive procedures, while surgical
asepsis eliminates all microorganisms.
Q9: A sterile field is being prepared on a procedure tray. The nurse accidentally touches the 1-inch
border of the sterile drape with a sterile-gloved hand. Which action is correct?
Nursing Education Actual Exam 2026/2027
with Detailed Rationales | Complete
Exam-Style Questions | Pass Guaranteed –
A+ Graded
Safety & Infection Control (Questions 1–15)
Q1: A nurse enters the room of a patient who is on Contact Precautions for methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). After performing morning care and removing the soiled gloves,
which action demonstrates correct hand hygiene technique?
A. The nurse applies an alcohol-based hand rub because the hands are not visibly soiled and rubs
until completely dry.
B. The nurse washes with soap and water for 10 seconds, turns off the faucet with bare hands, and
leaves the room. [CORRECT]
C. The nurse applies an alcohol-based hand rub for 15 seconds while still wearing the isolation
gown, then removes the gown.
D. The nurse washes with soap and water for at least 20 seconds, cleans all surfaces, and turns off
the faucet using a paper towel.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best answer is D. ATI Fundamentals teaches that when leaving the room of a
patient on Contact Precautions, you should perform hand hygiene after removing PPE. If hands are
visibly soiled or you have been caring for a patient with C. difficile, wash with soap and water for at
least 20 seconds, clean all surfaces including under nails, and use a paper towel to turn off the
faucet. Since MRSA does not form spores, alcohol-based hand rub is acceptable if hands are not
visibly soiled, but option A is incorrect because it happens before gown removal. The standard of
care requires removing the gown and gloves before hand hygiene and using proper technique.
Q2: A patient admitted with severe diarrhea is confirmed to have Clostridioides difficile infection.
Which isolation precautions and PPE are required for entering this patient's room?
,A. Droplet Precautions with a surgical mask and eye protection within three feet of the patient.
B. Airborne Precautions with an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room.
C. Contact Precautions with a gown and gloves, plus dedicated equipment and soap-and-water
hand hygiene. [CORRECT]
D. Standard Precautions only, with alcohol-based hand rub after glove removal.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. Clostridioides difficile requires Contact Precautions because it is
transmitted by spores that are resistant to alcohol-based hand rubs. ATI Fundamentals emphasizes
that you must wear a gown and gloves, use dedicated equipment, and perform hand hygiene with
soap and water when entering and leaving the room. Alcohol-based hand rub does not kill C.
difficile spores, so it is not sufficient for this organism.
Q3: The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis who is awaiting test
results. The patient is placed in an isolation room. Which combination of precautions and room
requirements is appropriate?
A. Droplet Precautions in a private room with the door closed; a surgical mask is required when
entering.
B. Airborne Precautions in a negative-pressure room with an N95 respirator or PAPR for all staff
entering. [CORRECT]
C. Contact Precautions with a gown, gloves, and a private room; hand hygiene with alcohol-based
rub is acceptable.
D. Standard Precautions only because tuberculosis is not confirmed; use a surgical mask if the
patient is coughing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei,
so Airborne Precautions are required. ATI Fundamentals teaches that this means placing the
patient in a negative-pressure room and wearing an N95 respirator or powered air-purifying
respirator for all personnel entering the room. The door should remain closed to maintain negative
pressure, and the patient should wear a surgical mask if transported outside the room.
Q4: A patient receiving chemotherapy has an absolute neutrophil count of 400 cells/mm³. Which
environmental modification does the nurse implement to maintain protective precautions?
A. Place fresh flowers in the room to improve mood and keep a small fruit basket on the bedside
table.
B. Allow live plants in the room because they improve air quality and patient satisfaction.
C. Ensure a private room with positive air pressure, HEPA filtration, and prohibit fresh flowers, fruit,
and live plants. [CORRECT]
D. Place the patient in a negative-pressure room to prevent the spread of infection to other
patients.
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: The best answer is C. Neutropenic precautions, or protective environment, require a
private room with positive air pressure and HEPA filtration to protect the immunocompromised
patient from environmental pathogens. ATI Fundamentals teaches that fresh flowers, fruit, and live
plants are prohibited because they harbor mold and bacteria. A negative-pressure room is used for
patients who are infectious to others, not for patients who need protection from the environment.
Q5: During the night shift, a nurse finds an 82-year-old patient on the floor next to the bed. The
patient was admitted two days ago for dehydration and has a history of orthostatic hypotension.
Which intervention should the nurse implement first to prevent future falls?
A. Apply bilateral soft wrist restraints to keep the patient in bed during the night.
B. Place the bed in the lowest position, lock the wheels, keep the call light within reach, and ensure
nonskid footwear. [CORRECT]
C. Move the patient to a room closer to the nurses' station and dim the lights to promote sleep.
D. Ask the provider to order a sedative at bedtime to keep the patient from attempting to ambulate
alone.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. ATI Fundamentals emphasizes that fall prevention strategies
should be the least restrictive first. Placing the bed in the lowest position, ensuring wheels are
locked, keeping the call light within reach, and providing nonskid footwear are standard,
evidence-based interventions. Restraints and chemical sedation are never first-line interventions
and should not be used for staff convenience. Moving the room may help but does not address the
immediate environmental hazards.
Q6: A provider writes an order for physical restraints on an agitated patient who is pulling at their IV
line. The nurse knows that which statement about restraint use is accurate?
A. Restraint orders must be renewed every 4 hours for adults and the nurse must check the patient
every hour.
B. Restraints can be applied by the nurse without a provider order if the situation is emergent, and
the order can be obtained later within 24 hours.
C. The nurse should use the least restrictive alternative first, obtain an order, and perform checks
every 15-30 minutes with frequent range-of-motion exercises. [CORRECT]
D. A sitter is considered a form of chemical restraint and requires the same documentation as wrist
restraints.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. ATI Fundamentals teaches that restraints—physical or
chemical—require using the least restrictive alternative first, obtaining a provider order, and
reassessing the patient frequently. For adults, orders are typically renewed every 24 hours, and
the nurse must check the patient and offer ROM every 15-30 minutes. Restraints are never used
, for staff convenience or punishment, and a sitter is not a chemical restraint; it is a less restrictive
alternative.
Q7: A patient with a history of epilepsy begins having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure while sitting
in a chair. Which set of nursing actions is the priority during the active seizure?
A. Insert an oral airway to prevent tongue biting, restrain the patient's limbs to prevent injury, and
call for help.
B. Lower the patient to the floor, protect the head, turn the patient to the side, and time the seizure;
do not insert anything in the mouth. [CORRECT]
C. Move furniture away, place a pillow under the patient's head, and administer rectal diazepam
immediately.
D. Call a code blue, begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation, and prepare the crash cart for possible
intubation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. During a seizure, the standard of care requires protecting the
patient from injury by lowering them to the floor, protecting the head, and turning them to the side
to maintain the airway. You should never insert anything into the mouth or restrain limbs. ATI
Fundamentals emphasizes timing the seizure and staying with the patient until the post-ictal phase.
CPR is not indicated unless the patient is pulseless.
Q8: The nurse is preparing to insert a Foley catheter. In terms of aseptic technique, the nurse
recognizes that catheter insertion requires which level of asepsis?
A. Medical asepsis with clean gloves and a clean field, because the urinary tract is not considered
sterile.
B. Surgical asepsis with sterile gloves, a sterile field, and sterile drapes to eliminate all
microorganisms. [CORRECT]
C. Contact Precautions with a gown and gloves because the patient has a history of urinary tract
infections.
D. Standard Precautions only, because the bladder maintains its own sterility through urine flow.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Inserting a Foley catheter is an invasive procedure that enters a
sterile body cavity, so surgical asepsis—sterile technique—is required. ATI Fundamentals teaches
that sterile gloves, a sterile field, and sterile drapes are necessary to prevent introducing
organisms into the urinary tract. Medical asepsis is used for noninvasive procedures, while surgical
asepsis eliminates all microorganisms.
Q9: A sterile field is being prepared on a procedure tray. The nurse accidentally touches the 1-inch
border of the sterile drape with a sterile-gloved hand. Which action is correct?
