WGU D027 Advanced Patho-pharmacological
Foundations – Exam Questions and Answers
Questions with Rationales | Format: Multiple
Choice | Correct Answer
1. What is the treatment for glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
deficiency?
A. Iron supplementation and vitamin B12
B. Avoiding triggers and blood transfusion
C. Corticosteroids and immunosuppressants
D. Regular insulin therapy and dietary restriction
Rationale: G6PD deficiency leads to hemolytic anemia when exposed to oxidative
stress from certain drugs, fava beans, or infections. Treatment focuses on trigger
avoidance; severe hemolysis may require blood transfusion.
2. What is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space called?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Pleural effusion
C. Pleurisy
D. Hemothorax
Rationale: Pleural effusion is the pathologic collection of fluid in the pleural
cavity, which can impair lung expansion and gas exchange. Causes include heart
failure, infection, and malignancy.
3. What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated hypertension?
A. Lisinopril
B. Amlodipine
C. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
D. Metoprolol
,Rationale: For uncomplicated hypertension, thiazide diuretics like HCTZ are
recommended as initial therapy due to proven cardiovascular outcome benefits and
low cost.
4. What instruction should be given to a patient when they first start taking
antihypertensive medication?
A. Take it in the morning with breakfast
B. Take the first dose at night to avoid orthostatic hypotension
C. Double the dose if a dose is missed
D. Take with grapefruit juice to increase absorption
Rationale: First-dose hypotension, especially with alpha-blockers or vasodilators,
can cause falls. Taking the first dose at bedtime minimizes orthostatic effects.
5. How should masked hypertension and white coat syndrome be eliminated?
A. Single office measurement
B. Home blood pressure monitoring only
C. Ambulatory blood pressure measurement and two office measurements on
two separate occasions
D. 24-hour urine collection
Rationale: Masked hypertension (normal office, high out-of-office) and white coat
hypertension (high office, normal out-of-office) require out-of-office readings.
Ambulatory monitoring or repeated home/office measurements provide accurate
diagnosis.
6. What is a common side effect of an ACE inhibitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Angioedema
C. Dry cough
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent bradykinin breakdown, leading to bradykinin
accumulation that causes a characteristic dry, persistent cough in 5–20% of
patients.
, 7. Which antihypertensive medication is preferred for a diabetic patient starting
therapy?
A. Metoprolol
B. HCTZ
C. Captopril (ACE inhibitor)
D. Doxazosin
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (e.g., captopril) are first-line for hypertensive diabetics
because they reduce proteinuria, slow nephropathy progression, and provide
cardiovascular protection.
8. What is the development of lipid plaques within arterial walls called?
A. Arteriosclerosis
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Monckeberg sclerosis
D. Fibromuscular dysplasia
Rationale: Atherosclerosis is the process of plaque formation composed of lipids,
inflammatory cells, and fibrous tissue, leading to arterial narrowing and
thrombosis.
9. Which drugs are used to manage a patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD)
and type 1 diabetes?
A. Aspirin alone
B. Daily aspirin, lipid-lowering with statin, and insulin
C. Warfarin and metformin
D. Clopidogrel and sulfonylureas
Rationale: PAD with type 1 diabetes requires antiplatelet therapy (aspirin),
aggressive lipid lowering (statin), and insulin for glycemic control to reduce
cardiovascular events and limb loss.
10. What is used as concomitant therapy in managing a patient with schizophrenia?
A. Vitamin C
Foundations – Exam Questions and Answers
Questions with Rationales | Format: Multiple
Choice | Correct Answer
1. What is the treatment for glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
deficiency?
A. Iron supplementation and vitamin B12
B. Avoiding triggers and blood transfusion
C. Corticosteroids and immunosuppressants
D. Regular insulin therapy and dietary restriction
Rationale: G6PD deficiency leads to hemolytic anemia when exposed to oxidative
stress from certain drugs, fava beans, or infections. Treatment focuses on trigger
avoidance; severe hemolysis may require blood transfusion.
2. What is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space called?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Pleural effusion
C. Pleurisy
D. Hemothorax
Rationale: Pleural effusion is the pathologic collection of fluid in the pleural
cavity, which can impair lung expansion and gas exchange. Causes include heart
failure, infection, and malignancy.
3. What is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated hypertension?
A. Lisinopril
B. Amlodipine
C. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
D. Metoprolol
,Rationale: For uncomplicated hypertension, thiazide diuretics like HCTZ are
recommended as initial therapy due to proven cardiovascular outcome benefits and
low cost.
4. What instruction should be given to a patient when they first start taking
antihypertensive medication?
A. Take it in the morning with breakfast
B. Take the first dose at night to avoid orthostatic hypotension
C. Double the dose if a dose is missed
D. Take with grapefruit juice to increase absorption
Rationale: First-dose hypotension, especially with alpha-blockers or vasodilators,
can cause falls. Taking the first dose at bedtime minimizes orthostatic effects.
5. How should masked hypertension and white coat syndrome be eliminated?
A. Single office measurement
B. Home blood pressure monitoring only
C. Ambulatory blood pressure measurement and two office measurements on
two separate occasions
D. 24-hour urine collection
Rationale: Masked hypertension (normal office, high out-of-office) and white coat
hypertension (high office, normal out-of-office) require out-of-office readings.
Ambulatory monitoring or repeated home/office measurements provide accurate
diagnosis.
6. What is a common side effect of an ACE inhibitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Angioedema
C. Dry cough
D. Bradycardia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent bradykinin breakdown, leading to bradykinin
accumulation that causes a characteristic dry, persistent cough in 5–20% of
patients.
, 7. Which antihypertensive medication is preferred for a diabetic patient starting
therapy?
A. Metoprolol
B. HCTZ
C. Captopril (ACE inhibitor)
D. Doxazosin
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (e.g., captopril) are first-line for hypertensive diabetics
because they reduce proteinuria, slow nephropathy progression, and provide
cardiovascular protection.
8. What is the development of lipid plaques within arterial walls called?
A. Arteriosclerosis
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Monckeberg sclerosis
D. Fibromuscular dysplasia
Rationale: Atherosclerosis is the process of plaque formation composed of lipids,
inflammatory cells, and fibrous tissue, leading to arterial narrowing and
thrombosis.
9. Which drugs are used to manage a patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD)
and type 1 diabetes?
A. Aspirin alone
B. Daily aspirin, lipid-lowering with statin, and insulin
C. Warfarin and metformin
D. Clopidogrel and sulfonylureas
Rationale: PAD with type 1 diabetes requires antiplatelet therapy (aspirin),
aggressive lipid lowering (statin), and insulin for glycemic control to reduce
cardiovascular events and limb loss.
10. What is used as concomitant therapy in managing a patient with schizophrenia?
A. Vitamin C
