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NURS 676 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM FIRST TRY | 300+ VERIFIED Q&A WITH RATIONALE & GRADED A+ (WEST COAST UNIVERSITY 2026/27)

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Stop stressing over your NURS 676 Advanced Pharmacology Final Exam! This is the ULTIMATE exam prep guide for West Coast University – updated for the 2026/27 Spring Quarter – featuring over 300 real exam-style questions with 100% correct answers, detailed rationales, and graded A+ explanations. ACTUAL EXAM CONTENT – These are NOT generic textbook summaries. This file contains the exact question types, pharmacology concepts, and clinical scenarios you will see on the NURS 676 final exam. No surprises on test day. COMPREHENSIVE COVERAGE – Every major pharmacology topic you need to master: General Principles – pharmacokinetics (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion), half-life, steady state, bioavailability, volume of distribution, first-pass metabolism, protein binding, CYP450 enzymes (3A4, 2D6, 2C9), drug interactions, therapeutic index, loading dose, TDM Autonomic Nervous System Drugs – beta-blockers (cardioselective, non-selective, ISA), alpha-blockers, cholinergic agonists, anticholinergics, neuromuscular blockers, reversal agents, cholinesterase inhibitors (neostigmine, pyridostigmine, edrophonium), atropine, scopolamine, clonidine, methyldopa, dobutamine, dopamine, epinephrine Cardiovascular Pharmacology – digoxin (toxicity, hypokalemia, immune Fab), amiodarone (pulmonary fibrosis, corneal deposits, thyrotoxicosis), warfarin (INR, vitamin K, CYP2C9), DOACs (apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, reversal agents), heparin (HIT, aPTT, protamine), antiplatelets (aspirin, clopidogrel, ticagrelor, prasugrel), statins (rosuvastatin, atorvastatin, myopathy, rhabdomyolysis), ACE inhibitors (cough, angioedema), ARBs, CCBs (amlodipine, diltiazem, verapamil), diuretics (furosemide, HCTZ, spironolactone), antiarrhythmics (Class I-IV), fibrinolytics (tenecteplase) Antimicrobial Pharmacology – penicillins, cephalosporins (cross-reactivity), carbapenems, macrolides (QT prolongation), fluoroquinolones (Achilles rupture), aminoglycosides (nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity), tetracyclines (photosensitivity), vancomycin (red man syndrome, MRSA), daptomycin (CPK monitoring), linezolid (serotonin syndrome, thrombocytopenia), metronidazole (disulfiram-like reaction), TMP-SMX (hyperkalemia, G6PD), antifungals (amphotericin B, voriconazole, TDM), antivirals (acyclovir, oseltamivir, antiretrovirals), anti-TB drugs (rifampin, isoniazid, pyridoxine, ethambutol) Neurologic & Psychiatric Pharmacology – SSRIs (CYP2D6, interactions), MAOIs (tyramine crisis), lithium (nephrogenic DI, tremor, toxicity), anticonvulsants (phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine), antipsychotics (olanzapine, clozapine, weight gain, agranulocytosis), levodopa/carbidopa (dyskinesia, wearing off), COMT inhibitors, NMDA antagonists (memantine), cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, bradycardia), benzodiazepines, z-drugs, buspirone, pregabalin, gabapentin, duloxetine Endocrine & Rheumatologic Pharmacology – metformin (eGFR, lactic acidosis), SGLT2 inhibitors (empagliflozin, dapagliflozin), GLP-1 agonists (semaglutide, liraglutide), insulin (glargine, NPH, hypoglycemia), levothyroxine (overtreatment), PTU vs. methimazole in pregnancy, glucocorticoids (stress dosing, taper), bisphosphonates (alendronate, esophageal ulcer), allopurinol (HLA-B*5801, drug interactions), colchicine, JAK inhibitors (tofacitinib), biologics (infliximab, tocilizumab) Oncologic & Hematologic Pharmacology – methotrexate (leucovorin rescue, glucarpidase), cyclophosphamide (hemorrhagic cystitis, mesna), doxorubicin (cardiomyopathy), taxanes (peripheral neuropathy), CDK 4/6 inhibitors (QT prolongation), PARP inhibitors, immune checkpoint inhibitors (pneumonitis, steroids), TKIs (imatinib, dasatinib, nilotinib), proteasome inhibitors (bortezomib, neuropathy), rituximab (HBsAg screening), HIT (argatroban), TPO agonists (eltrombopag, romiplostim), sickle cell drugs (hydroxyurea), DOAC reversal (andexanet, idarucizumab) And much more – 300+ Q&As with detailed rationales! STUDENT-PROVEN FORMAT – Each question is followed by the correct answer AND rationale explaining the mechanism, clinical application, and why other options are wrong. Perfect for self-quizzing, rapid memorization, and last-minute review.

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NURS 676 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
Course
NURS 676 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY

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Page 1 of 126




2026/27 NURS 676, ADVANCED

PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM (SPRING

QTR) WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS WITH

RATIONALE AND GRADED A+ (SUCCESS

GUARANTEED):WEST COAST UNIVERSITY




1. A patient with liver cirrhosis is prescribed a drug with

high first-pass metabolism. What change is most

appropriate?

A. Increase the dose

B. Decrease the dose

,Page 2 of 126


C. Administer intravenously

D. No change needed

Correct Answer: B – Liver disease reduces first-pass

metabolism, leading to higher bioavailability; dose reduction

prevents toxicity.

2. Which statement best describes the blood-brain barrier

(BBB) effect on drug distribution?

A. Lipophilic drugs cross easily

B. Hydrophilic drugs cross easily

C. All drugs cross freely

D. Only ionized drugs cross

Correct Answer: A – The BBB is lipid-based; lipophilic drugs

passively diffuse through.

3. A patient takes a drug with a half-life of 12 hours. How

long to reach steady state?

A. 24 hours

B. 48 hours

,Page 3 of 126


C. 60 hours

D. 72 hours

Correct Answer: C – Steady state = 4–5 half-lives → 48–60

hours; closest is 60 hours.

4. Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is most commonly

involved in drug-drug interactions?

A. CYP1A2

B. CYP2D6

C. CYP3A4

D. CYP2E1

Correct Answer: C – CYP3A4 metabolizes >50% of all drugs.

5. A drug with zero-order kinetics:

A. Eliminates constant amount per time

B. Eliminates constant fraction per time

C. Has a constant half-life

D. Is always renally cleared

, Page 4 of 126


Correct Answer: A – Example: phenytoin; saturation of

metabolic pathways.

6. Which factor increases volume of distribution (Vd)?

A. High protein binding

B. Low lipophilicity

C. High tissue binding

D. Large molecular weight

Correct Answer: C – High tissue binding pulls drug out of

plasma.

7. A patient has a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 25

mL/min. Which antibiotic requires no dose adjustment?

A. Gentamicin

B. Amoxicillin

C. Ceftriaxone

D. Vancomycin

Correct Answer: C – Ceftriaxone is hepatically excreted.

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Course
NURS 676 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY

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