MATERNAL CHILD NURSING EXAM LATEST VERSIONS 2026 ACTUAL EXAM 250 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS/NEWEST UPDATE!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is Rh-negative and is prescribed Rho(D) immune globulin
(RhoGAM). Which statement best describes the primary action of this medication?
A) It provides permanent immunity against the Rh factor for all future pregnancies.
B) It destroys the fetus's Rh-positive red blood cells before the mother can develop antibodies.
C) It prevents the mother’s immune system from forming Rh antibodies in response to Rh-
positive fetal blood.
D) It is administered to Rh-positive mothers to prevent ABO incompatibility.
E) It stimulates the production of fetal hemoglobin to prevent hemolytic disease.
Correct Answer: C) It prevents the mother’s immune system from forming Rh antibodies in
response to Rh-positive fetal blood.
Rationale: RhoGAM is an immunoglobulin that provides passive immunity. It works by
suppressing the immune response in Rh-negative women who are exposed to Rh-positive
fetal blood (during birth, trauma, or miscarriage), thereby preventing the mother from
becoming "sensitized" and developing antibodies that could attack future Rh-positive
fetuses.
Question 2
A primigravid client at a prenatal visit asks when she should expect to feel her baby move for the
first time. The nurse should inform her that "quickening" typically occurs at:
A) 10 to 12 weeks gestation
B) 14 to 16 weeks gestation
C) 18 to 20 weeks gestation
D) 22 to 24 weeks gestation
E) 26 to 28 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: C) 18 to 20 weeks gestation
Rationale: While multigravida women (those who have been pregnant before) may feel
movement as early as 16 weeks because they know what it feels like, a primigravida (first-
time pregnant) woman typically identifies the first fetal movements between 18 and 20
weeks.
Question 3
The nurse is assessing a client at 20 weeks of gestation. At what anatomical location should the
nurse expect to palpate the uterine fundus?
A) Slightly above the symphysis pubis
B) Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
C) At the level of the umbilicus
D) Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
E) At the level of the xiphoid process
Correct Answer: C) At the level of the umbilicus
, 2
Rationale: By 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus typically reaches the level of the umbilicus.
This is a key milestone in prenatal assessment to ensure the fetus is growing at a normal
rate (fundal height in centimeters usually matches the weeks of gestation between 20 and 36
weeks).
Question 4
A pregnant client asks the nurse how the umbilical cord is protected from being pinched or
compressed while the baby is moving. The nurse explains that protection is provided by:
A) The amniotic sac membrane
B) A thick layer of adipose tissue
C) Wharton’s jelly
D) High pressure within the umbilical vein
E) The vernix caseosa
Correct Answer: C) Wharton’s jelly
Rationale: Wharton’s jelly is a gelatinous connective tissue that surrounds the two arteries
and one vein in the umbilical cord. Its primary function is to prevent compression of the
blood vessels, ensuring the fetus receives a continuous supply of oxygen and nutrients.
Question 5
A 20-year-old client reports finding a lump in her breast during a self-examination. What is the
most appropriate initial response by the nurse?
A) "Breast lumps at your age are almost always cancerous, so we need to start treatment
immediately."
B) "It is likely just a cyst; you should wait a few months to see if it goes away."
C) "Many breast lumps are benign, but you must be examined by a healthcare provider to
confirm the diagnosis."
D) "Breast lumps in young women are usually related to caffeine intake; stop drinking soda."
E) "You are too young for breast cancer, so there is no need to worry."
Correct Answer: C) "Many breast lumps are benign, but you must be examined by a
healthcare provider to confirm the diagnosis."
Rationale: While many breast lumps in young women are benign (such as fibroadenomas or
cysts), any new lump must be professionally evaluated through clinical breast exam and
potentially imaging (ultrasound) or biopsy to rule out malignancy.
Question 6
A prenatal client who was previously sedentary asks the nurse what type of exercise is safest to
begin during pregnancy. The nurse should recommend:
A) High-impact aerobics
B) Scuba diving
C) Walking
D) Snow skiing
, 3
E) Contact sports like soccer
Correct Answer: C) Walking
Rationale: Walking is considered the ideal exercise for pregnant women, especially those not
previously active. It is low-impact, improves circulation, and carries a low risk of injury or
overexertion.
Question 7
A 17-year-old female client reports severe cramping and pelvic pain during her menstrual
periods. The nurse correctly documents this condition as:
A) Amenorrhea
B) Menorrhagia
C) Dysmenorrhea
D) Metrorrhagia
E) Endometriosis
Correct Answer: C) Dysmenorrhea
Rationale: Dysmenorrhea is the medical term for painful menstruation. Primary
dysmenorrhea is common in adolescents and is caused by the release of prostaglandins,
leading to uterine contractions and pain.
Question 8
Which laboratory tests are standardly obtained during a client's first-trimester prenatal visit?
(Select All That Apply)
A) Blood type and Rh factor
B) Complete blood count (CBC)
C) HIV screening
D) Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT)
E) Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: Blood type, Rh, CBC, and HIV are part of the initial screening. The GTT is
typically done at 24-28 weeks, and GBS is done at 35-37 weeks.
Question 9
The nurse is using a Doppler to assess fetal heart tones (FHT). At how many weeks gestation can
FHT typically first be heard?
A) 6 to 8 weeks
B) 10 to 12 weeks
C) 14 to 16 weeks
D) 18 to 20 weeks
E) 22 to 24 weeks
Correct Answer: B) 10 to 12 weeks
Rationale: Fetal heart tones can usually be detected via Doppler between 10 and 12 weeks of
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS/NEWEST UPDATE!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is Rh-negative and is prescribed Rho(D) immune globulin
(RhoGAM). Which statement best describes the primary action of this medication?
A) It provides permanent immunity against the Rh factor for all future pregnancies.
B) It destroys the fetus's Rh-positive red blood cells before the mother can develop antibodies.
C) It prevents the mother’s immune system from forming Rh antibodies in response to Rh-
positive fetal blood.
D) It is administered to Rh-positive mothers to prevent ABO incompatibility.
E) It stimulates the production of fetal hemoglobin to prevent hemolytic disease.
Correct Answer: C) It prevents the mother’s immune system from forming Rh antibodies in
response to Rh-positive fetal blood.
Rationale: RhoGAM is an immunoglobulin that provides passive immunity. It works by
suppressing the immune response in Rh-negative women who are exposed to Rh-positive
fetal blood (during birth, trauma, or miscarriage), thereby preventing the mother from
becoming "sensitized" and developing antibodies that could attack future Rh-positive
fetuses.
Question 2
A primigravid client at a prenatal visit asks when she should expect to feel her baby move for the
first time. The nurse should inform her that "quickening" typically occurs at:
A) 10 to 12 weeks gestation
B) 14 to 16 weeks gestation
C) 18 to 20 weeks gestation
D) 22 to 24 weeks gestation
E) 26 to 28 weeks gestation
Correct Answer: C) 18 to 20 weeks gestation
Rationale: While multigravida women (those who have been pregnant before) may feel
movement as early as 16 weeks because they know what it feels like, a primigravida (first-
time pregnant) woman typically identifies the first fetal movements between 18 and 20
weeks.
Question 3
The nurse is assessing a client at 20 weeks of gestation. At what anatomical location should the
nurse expect to palpate the uterine fundus?
A) Slightly above the symphysis pubis
B) Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus
C) At the level of the umbilicus
D) Two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
E) At the level of the xiphoid process
Correct Answer: C) At the level of the umbilicus
, 2
Rationale: By 20 weeks of gestation, the fundus typically reaches the level of the umbilicus.
This is a key milestone in prenatal assessment to ensure the fetus is growing at a normal
rate (fundal height in centimeters usually matches the weeks of gestation between 20 and 36
weeks).
Question 4
A pregnant client asks the nurse how the umbilical cord is protected from being pinched or
compressed while the baby is moving. The nurse explains that protection is provided by:
A) The amniotic sac membrane
B) A thick layer of adipose tissue
C) Wharton’s jelly
D) High pressure within the umbilical vein
E) The vernix caseosa
Correct Answer: C) Wharton’s jelly
Rationale: Wharton’s jelly is a gelatinous connective tissue that surrounds the two arteries
and one vein in the umbilical cord. Its primary function is to prevent compression of the
blood vessels, ensuring the fetus receives a continuous supply of oxygen and nutrients.
Question 5
A 20-year-old client reports finding a lump in her breast during a self-examination. What is the
most appropriate initial response by the nurse?
A) "Breast lumps at your age are almost always cancerous, so we need to start treatment
immediately."
B) "It is likely just a cyst; you should wait a few months to see if it goes away."
C) "Many breast lumps are benign, but you must be examined by a healthcare provider to
confirm the diagnosis."
D) "Breast lumps in young women are usually related to caffeine intake; stop drinking soda."
E) "You are too young for breast cancer, so there is no need to worry."
Correct Answer: C) "Many breast lumps are benign, but you must be examined by a
healthcare provider to confirm the diagnosis."
Rationale: While many breast lumps in young women are benign (such as fibroadenomas or
cysts), any new lump must be professionally evaluated through clinical breast exam and
potentially imaging (ultrasound) or biopsy to rule out malignancy.
Question 6
A prenatal client who was previously sedentary asks the nurse what type of exercise is safest to
begin during pregnancy. The nurse should recommend:
A) High-impact aerobics
B) Scuba diving
C) Walking
D) Snow skiing
, 3
E) Contact sports like soccer
Correct Answer: C) Walking
Rationale: Walking is considered the ideal exercise for pregnant women, especially those not
previously active. It is low-impact, improves circulation, and carries a low risk of injury or
overexertion.
Question 7
A 17-year-old female client reports severe cramping and pelvic pain during her menstrual
periods. The nurse correctly documents this condition as:
A) Amenorrhea
B) Menorrhagia
C) Dysmenorrhea
D) Metrorrhagia
E) Endometriosis
Correct Answer: C) Dysmenorrhea
Rationale: Dysmenorrhea is the medical term for painful menstruation. Primary
dysmenorrhea is common in adolescents and is caused by the release of prostaglandins,
leading to uterine contractions and pain.
Question 8
Which laboratory tests are standardly obtained during a client's first-trimester prenatal visit?
(Select All That Apply)
A) Blood type and Rh factor
B) Complete blood count (CBC)
C) HIV screening
D) Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT)
E) Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: Blood type, Rh, CBC, and HIV are part of the initial screening. The GTT is
typically done at 24-28 weeks, and GBS is done at 35-37 weeks.
Question 9
The nurse is using a Doppler to assess fetal heart tones (FHT). At how many weeks gestation can
FHT typically first be heard?
A) 6 to 8 weeks
B) 10 to 12 weeks
C) 14 to 16 weeks
D) 18 to 20 weeks
E) 22 to 24 weeks
Correct Answer: B) 10 to 12 weeks
Rationale: Fetal heart tones can usually be detected via Doppler between 10 and 12 weeks of
