NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophysiology Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace Exams Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED 100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!

NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophysiology Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace Exams Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED 100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!! 1. What are the five molecular classes of immunoglobulins (Ig)? How are they Characterized? Which one is the most prevalent in the body? - Correct Answer: The immunoglobulin are divided into five different classes based on differences in the amino acid sequences in the constant region of heavy chains. These differences can be detected by sequence studies or more commonly by serological means. Ig G- The most abundant type of antibody is found in all body fluids and protects against bacterial and viral infections, Ig G - Gamma heavy chains 2. IgM- Mu heavy chains- which is found mainly in the blood and lymph fluid, is the first antibody to be made by the body to fight a new infection. 3. Ig A - Alpha heavy chains, which is found in high concentrations in the mucous membranes, particularly those lining the respiratory passages and gastrointestinal tract, as well as in saliva and tears. 4. Ig D- Delta heavy chains, exists in small amounts of blood, is the least understood antibody. 5. Ig E- Epsilon, heavy chains, which associated mainly with allergic reaction (when the immune system overreacts to environmental antigens such as pollen, or pet dander). It is found in the lungs, skin, and mucous membranes. Doctors rely on the immunoglobulin test as one of the tools to help diagnose immunodeficiency's that are acquired through infection, disease, malnutrition, burns, or as a side effect of medicines 2. How do circulating antibodies protect against infection? - Correct Answer: The leukocytes circulate through the body between the organs and nodes via lymphatic vessels and blood vessels. In this way, the immune system works in a coordinated manner to monitor the body for germs or substances that might cause problems. The two basic types of leukocytes are: 1. Phagocytes, cells that chew up invading organisms 2. Lymphocytes, cells that allow the body to remember and recognize previous invaders and help the body destroy them. When antigens (foreign substances that invade the body) are detected, several types of cells work together to recognize them and respond. B-lymphocytes then produce antibodies that lock onto the antigen so that next time you wont get sick from the same disease again. Then we have T- cells (killer Cells), which are cells that help to destroy antigens that have been marked as antibodies or cells that are infected. The T- cells help to signal other cells like phagocytes to do their jobs. Antibodies help to neutralize damaging or poisonous toxins that were produced by other organisms 3. As patient has contracted the herpes virus. Why is the antibody titer no applicable in this case? - Correct Answer: Titers are a measurement to determine if there are antibodies present for the virus being tested in this case it's the herpes virus. It looks to see if there are antibodies for the HSV 1 (cold sores) and HSV 2 (genital herpes). But since the patient already has the virus present it would prove to be a positive due to the current infection. So it would not be beneficial for them to have a titer drawn at this time. If the infection occurred very recently (within a few weeks to 3 months), the test may be negative, but you still may be infected this is a false positive. It can take up to 3 months after a possible herpes exposure for this test to be positive. A positive test means that you have been infected with HSV recently or at some point in the past. The virus may be dormant, but you will be infected. A person who has contracted the herpes virus will not need to have an antibody titer drawn because they have the live virus already and is not immune to the herpes virus. Titers are drawn to test your immunity to a virus and to what level your titer/dilution ratio proportion before no more antibodies are in the blood. 4. A 7-year-old boy is outside on a beautiful sunny day. As he runs around in the front yard, he sees something moving that captures his attention. He reaches down into an ivy bed and pulls. What he thinks is a nonvenomous snake is actually a member of the venomous pit viper species, a copperhead. The snake curls and bites the young boy on the palm of his right hand just below his thumb. He cries out in pain, drops the snake, and runs to his father. The mother immediately drives the child to a local hospital's emergency department. His father follows behind after recovering what he believes to be the snake that bit his son. Upon examination, the child's right hand is swollen and red from the fingertips to his elbow. After confirming the snake's species, the ED physician orders that the child begin antivenin therapy. Which of the following is the most important in preventing further damage to surrounding tissues? - Correct Answer: d. Mast cells- The major cell types that produce mediators of acute inflammation are the sentinels that detect invaders and damage in tissue, that is, macrophages, dendritic cells, and mast cells. 5. After several days of treatment and observation, the child is allowed to return home. He is able to wiggle all of his fingers, has full sensation, and can flex and extend his wrist without pain. The bite area remains red and scabbed over. As he continues to recover, his body must continue the reconstruction phase and then move on to the maturation phase. The most important cell during the reconstructive phase of wound healing is: - Correct Answer: b. Fibroblasts- The reconstructive phase begins at about 2 to 3 weeks and can last up to 2 years. At this time, collagen increases, wound contraction occurs, and the wound loses its pink or purple color as capillary and fibroblast density decreases. All stages may vary in length because of infection, malnutrition, or other exogenous factors 6. Explain why Down syndrome is more common in infants born to women older than 35 years of age. - Correct Answer: Maternal age does have a strong influence on the incidence of trisomy 21. It occurs once in 1550 births of women under the age of 20 and one in 25 live births of women older than 45 yrs. Of age. The correlation with maternal age suggested that most cases the meiotic nondisjunction of chromosome 21 occurs in the ovum. In about 4% of cases of Down syndrome, the extra chromosomal material derives from the presence of a robertsonian translocation or the long arm of chromosomal 21 to another acrocentric chromosome. The genetic material normally found on two chromosomes is distributed among only three chromosomes during meiosis having the greater chance of being aneuploid 7. A father is a carrier of cystic fibrosis. The mother is also a carrier of cystic fibrosis. What is the occurrence risk for the offspring? - Correct Answer: To have CF, a child must inherit one copy of the CF gene mutation from each parent. People who have only one copy of a CF gene mutation do not have CF. they are called carriers. So each time two CF carriers have a child, the chances are 25% (1 in 4) the child will have CF, 50% (1 in 2) the child will be a carrier but will not have CF. , 25% (1 in 4) the child will not be a carrier of the gene and will not have CF. 8. A father expresses Huntington disease. The mother is healthy. What is the recurrence risk for the offspring? - Correct Answer: Family history plays a very important role in inheritance patterns of autosomal dominant disorders. If one of the parents have the dominant allele H = you have a 50% chance of receiving a defective gene from the parent. If both of you have Huntington's disease you have a 75% chance of receiving the gene. If you do have the disease, the odds for you passing the trait onto your children would be the same as 50%. 9. A mother is a carrier of hemophilia A. The father is healthy. What is the occurrence risk for the offspring? - Correct Answer: Hemophilia is a genetic disorder more prominent in males. Hemophilia is found on one X chromosome and people often suffer from not being able to clot. Males don't the other X to block it out. So if a female has one x diseased then she is the carrier. 50% daughter carrier, 50% son will have it. 10. A couple has two children. Neither children is affected by autosomal dominant disease X for which the father is heterozygous. What is the likelihood of the next child inheriting the disease? Does the risk increase, decrease, or remain the same? - Correct Answer: Autosomal Dominant disorders are manifested in the heterozygous state, so at lest one parent of an index case is usually affected; both males and females are affected, and both can transmit the condition. When an infected person marries and uninfected one, every child has one chance in two of having the disease. The biochemical mechanisms of autosomal dominant disorders depend upon the nature of the mutation and the type of protein affected. Most mutations lead to the reduced production of a gene product or give rise to a dysfunctional or inactive protein. Whether such a mutation gives rise to dominant or recessive disease depends on whether the remaining copy of the gene is capable of compensating for the loss.