GEORGIA LAWS & RULES
CHIROPRACTIC BOARD
EXAM | THE ELITE
UNIVERSAL TEST BANK
PART 0: THE NAVIGATOR
● Tier 1 (Questions 1–28) - Foundational Syntax & Application: Core statutory
definitions under O.C.G.A. Title 43 Chapter 9, continuing education requirements, records
retention mandates, and foundational modality credentialing.
● Tier 2 (Questions 29–58) - Complex Application & Simulation: Integrating the 2026
HB 1088 title updates, 2026 SB 169 dry needling mandates, pre-pay 48-hour protocols,
and advertising constraints into dynamic clinical scenarios.
● Tier 3 (Questions 59–88) - Grandmaster Synthesis: Multi-variable dilemmas requiring
the synthesis of corporate practice constraints, cross-state telehealth jurisdiction,
peer-review conflicts, and malpractice mitigation to avert catastrophic legal failure.
PART I: THE PRIMER
Mastering the Georgia Board of Chiropractic Medicine jurisprudence transforms the practitioner
from a vulnerable clinical technician into a legally impenetrable healthcare architect. The
modern regulatory environment, particularly with the integration of the 2026 statutory updates,
demands that practitioners synthesize highly complex regulatory data into immediate, decisive
action to avert malpractice liability and preserve licensure.
The Critical Axioms
The regulatory architecture governing chiropractic medicine in Georgia operates on strict,
unforgiving metrics. The table below synthesizes the most critical rules, laws, and frameworks
that dictate clinical survival in this jurisdiction.
Regulatory Domain Core Standard / 2026 Mandate Professional & Legal
Implication
Continuing Education (CE) 20 hours annually (15 clinical Deficiencies trigger immediate
sciences, 4 ethics/risk audit failure. First calendar year
management, 1 GA laws/rules). of licensure is exempt. Practice
Max 20 hours online per management courses are
biennium. strictly prohibited for CE credit.
,Regulatory Domain Core Standard / 2026 Mandate Professional & Legal
Implication
Record Retention & Release Retain adult records for 10 Withholding records for an
years from the last visit. unpaid balance is illegal.
Release within 30 days of Closing a clinic requires a
written request. 30-day legal notice in the local
newspaper.
Modality Credentialing Requires 120 hours of Applying physiological
instruction to utilize therapeutic therapeutics without the
modalities (electrical, thermal, 120-hour certification
acoustic, light). constitutes practicing outside
the authorized scope.
Pre-Pay Financial Plans Contracts mandate a 48-hour Unearned fees must be placed
evaluation period during which in trust/escrow. Commingling
content cannot change. triggers financial exploitation
and unprofessional conduct
sanctions.
2026 SB 169 Dry Needling Effective 2026: 1,365 hours of Legacy 50-hour certifications
training (705 didactic, 660 are superseded. Performing dry
clinical) and 500 supervised needling without meeting the
treatments. 2026 metric is unlicensed
invasive practice.
2026 HB 1088 Title Update Practitioners are legally Protects the title while bridging
authorized to utilize the title the nomenclature gap, though it
"Chiropractic Physician". does not expand the scope to
include pharmacology or
surgery.
PART II: THE ELITE TEST BANK
Q1: A Georgia licensee attempts to satisfy their annual continuing education requirements
entirely via an approved online platform. Based on the principles of Georgia CE Rule 100-5-.02,
which outcome is MOST ACCURATE? A) They will pass, provided the online platform is
CCE-accredited. B) They will fail, as all 20 hours must be completed in-person annually. C)
They will pass this year but will exhaust their maximum 20-hour electronic media allowance for
the entire biennial renewal period. D) They will fail, as online courses are only valid for the
1-hour Georgia law requirement.
● The Answer: C (They will pass this year but will exhaust their maximum 20-hour electronic
media allowance for the entire biennial renewal period)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Accreditation does not bypass the strict 20-hour biennial cap on
digital learning.
○ B is incorrect: Online learning is permitted, but capped.
○ D is incorrect: Electronic media can apply to clinical sciences, up to the maximum
limit.
The Mentor's Analysis: The Board caps digital convenience to ensure hands-on clinical
verification. When facing CE scheduling, the immediate priority is tracking the 20-hour biennial
limit. By utilizing in-person seminars for the balance, you bypass the common trap of audit
,failure. Professional/Academic Intuition: Digital learning is a supplement, never a total
substitute for physical clinical presence.
Q2: A newly licensed practitioner receives their Georgia credential in April 2026. Regarding their
2026 CE requirements, which action is IMMEDIATELY required? A) Complete 20 hours prior to
December 31. B) Complete a prorated 15 hours prior to December 31. C) Submit a waiver to the
Board to defer the hours to 2027. D) No action is required, as successful candidates are
automatically exempt in their initial calendar year of licensure.
● The Answer: D (No action is required, as successful candidates are automatically exempt
in their initial calendar year of licensure)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: The rule explicitly provides an exemption for the initial year.
○ B is incorrect: Georgia does not utilize a prorated CE formula for new licensees.
○ C is incorrect: The exemption is automatic; a waiver request is an unnecessary
administrative error.
The Mentor's Analysis: New practitioners are granted an administrative runway. When facing
first-year audits, the immediate priority is recognizing the calendar-year exemption. By utilizing
the automatic exemption rule, you bypass the common trap of redundant educational spending.
Professional/Academic Intuition: The year your license is printed is your year of CE
amnesty.
Q3: A patient's attorney submits a HIPAA-compliant request for medical records. The patient
owes the clinic $1,500. Based on O.C.G.A. 31-33-2, what is the FIRST compliant action? A)
Withhold the records until the $1,500 balance is satisfied. B) Release the records within 30 days
regardless of the outstanding financial balance. C) Release only the intake forms and withhold
the clinical SOAP notes. D) Demand a $500 administrative retainer before searching for the
records.
● The Answer: B (Release the records within 30 days regardless of the outstanding
financial balance)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Holding medical records hostage for debt collection is illegal in
Georgia.
○ C is incorrect: The provider must furnish a "complete and current copy" of the
record.
○ D is incorrect: Providers may only charge state-mandated maximum retrieval fees,
not arbitrary retainers.
The Mentor's Analysis: Healthcare data belongs to the patient. When facing a records request
with debt, the immediate priority is separating the clinical release from the financial dispute. By
utilizing prompt statutory release, you bypass the common trap of extortionate record
withholding. Professional/Academic Intuition: Records are clinical artifacts, not financial
collateral.
Q4: A practitioner utilizes non-invasive cold laser therapy to treat a rotator cuff strain. Under
O.C.G.A. § 43-9-16, what is the minimum prerequisite to perform this specific action? A) A
general chiropractic license. B) 50 hours of coursework in physical therapy. C) 120 hours of
instruction in the proper utilization of therapeutic modalities. D) Medical board supervision.
● The Answer: C (120 hours of instruction in the proper utilization of therapeutic modalities)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: A baseline license allows adjustments; physiological therapeutics
require additional certification.
○ B is incorrect: 50 hours is legally insufficient.
, ○ D is incorrect: Medical supervision is not required; chiropractors have independent
authority once the 120-hour metric is met.
The Mentor's Analysis: Modalities alter tissue state through energy. When facing the use of
physiological therapeutics, the immediate priority is verifying the 120-hour educational
threshold. By utilizing certified modality training, you bypass the common trap of practicing
outside the scope. Professional/Academic Intuition: Adjusting an articulation is inherent;
altering tissue with energy is earned via 120 hours.
Q5: A chiropractor decides to close their physical office and transition entirely to consulting.
Regarding their physical patient records, which action is MOST APPROPRIATE under Rule
100-7-.07? A) Shred all records immediately upon lease termination. B) Transfer records to a
digital cloud and delete the originals without notice. C) Post a legal notice of closing in the local
newspaper, allowing not less than 30 days for retrieval. D) Send a text message giving patients
48 hours to claim their files.
● The Answer: C (Post a legal notice of closing in the local newspaper, allowing not less
than 30 days for retrieval)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Adult records must be retained for 10 years; destruction constitutes
spoliation.
○ B is incorrect: Patients must be notified of where their health data is residing.
○ D is incorrect: 48 hours and a text message do not satisfy the statutory requirement
of a local legal organ notice.
The Mentor's Analysis: Closing a business does not close your custodial liability. When facing
practice closure, the immediate priority is ensuring legal public notification. By utilizing the
30-day legal organ notice, you bypass the common trap of patient abandonment.
Professional/Academic Intuition: Your custodial duty to the record outlives your lease on
the building.
Q6: An adult patient's last date of service was June 1, 2020. Based on Georgia medical record
retention laws, when is the earliest the record can be legally destroyed? A) June 1, 2025 B)
June 1, 2027 C) June 1, 2030 D) June 1, 2035
● The Answer: C (June 1, 2030)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: 5 years is insufficient for medical records in Georgia.
○ B is incorrect: 7 years applies to certain physician classes, but Rule 100-7-.07
dictates 10 years for chiropractors.
○ D is incorrect: 15 years exceeds the mandated minimum, though permitted, 10
years is the exact earliest threshold.
The Mentor's Analysis: Records are legal shields against future claims. When facing archival
audits, the immediate priority is securing the 10-year timeline. By utilizing automated 10-year
archival holds, you bypass the common trap of premature spoliation of evidence.
Professional/Academic Intuition: Adult records are locked in a 10-year vault from the date of
the final adjustment.
Q7: A practitioner advertises a "Free Spinal Examination." A patient receives the exam, and the
practitioner subsequently bills the patient's major medical insurance $150 for the encounter.
Based on Advertising Rule 100-4-.01, which conclusion is MOST ACCURATE? A) This is
permissible because the patient did not pay out-of-pocket. B) This constitutes unprofessional
conduct, as compensation was requested from a third party for a "free" service. C) This is legal
as long as the insurance company pays the claim. D) This is acceptable if the patient signed an
assignment of benefits.
CHIROPRACTIC BOARD
EXAM | THE ELITE
UNIVERSAL TEST BANK
PART 0: THE NAVIGATOR
● Tier 1 (Questions 1–28) - Foundational Syntax & Application: Core statutory
definitions under O.C.G.A. Title 43 Chapter 9, continuing education requirements, records
retention mandates, and foundational modality credentialing.
● Tier 2 (Questions 29–58) - Complex Application & Simulation: Integrating the 2026
HB 1088 title updates, 2026 SB 169 dry needling mandates, pre-pay 48-hour protocols,
and advertising constraints into dynamic clinical scenarios.
● Tier 3 (Questions 59–88) - Grandmaster Synthesis: Multi-variable dilemmas requiring
the synthesis of corporate practice constraints, cross-state telehealth jurisdiction,
peer-review conflicts, and malpractice mitigation to avert catastrophic legal failure.
PART I: THE PRIMER
Mastering the Georgia Board of Chiropractic Medicine jurisprudence transforms the practitioner
from a vulnerable clinical technician into a legally impenetrable healthcare architect. The
modern regulatory environment, particularly with the integration of the 2026 statutory updates,
demands that practitioners synthesize highly complex regulatory data into immediate, decisive
action to avert malpractice liability and preserve licensure.
The Critical Axioms
The regulatory architecture governing chiropractic medicine in Georgia operates on strict,
unforgiving metrics. The table below synthesizes the most critical rules, laws, and frameworks
that dictate clinical survival in this jurisdiction.
Regulatory Domain Core Standard / 2026 Mandate Professional & Legal
Implication
Continuing Education (CE) 20 hours annually (15 clinical Deficiencies trigger immediate
sciences, 4 ethics/risk audit failure. First calendar year
management, 1 GA laws/rules). of licensure is exempt. Practice
Max 20 hours online per management courses are
biennium. strictly prohibited for CE credit.
,Regulatory Domain Core Standard / 2026 Mandate Professional & Legal
Implication
Record Retention & Release Retain adult records for 10 Withholding records for an
years from the last visit. unpaid balance is illegal.
Release within 30 days of Closing a clinic requires a
written request. 30-day legal notice in the local
newspaper.
Modality Credentialing Requires 120 hours of Applying physiological
instruction to utilize therapeutic therapeutics without the
modalities (electrical, thermal, 120-hour certification
acoustic, light). constitutes practicing outside
the authorized scope.
Pre-Pay Financial Plans Contracts mandate a 48-hour Unearned fees must be placed
evaluation period during which in trust/escrow. Commingling
content cannot change. triggers financial exploitation
and unprofessional conduct
sanctions.
2026 SB 169 Dry Needling Effective 2026: 1,365 hours of Legacy 50-hour certifications
training (705 didactic, 660 are superseded. Performing dry
clinical) and 500 supervised needling without meeting the
treatments. 2026 metric is unlicensed
invasive practice.
2026 HB 1088 Title Update Practitioners are legally Protects the title while bridging
authorized to utilize the title the nomenclature gap, though it
"Chiropractic Physician". does not expand the scope to
include pharmacology or
surgery.
PART II: THE ELITE TEST BANK
Q1: A Georgia licensee attempts to satisfy their annual continuing education requirements
entirely via an approved online platform. Based on the principles of Georgia CE Rule 100-5-.02,
which outcome is MOST ACCURATE? A) They will pass, provided the online platform is
CCE-accredited. B) They will fail, as all 20 hours must be completed in-person annually. C)
They will pass this year but will exhaust their maximum 20-hour electronic media allowance for
the entire biennial renewal period. D) They will fail, as online courses are only valid for the
1-hour Georgia law requirement.
● The Answer: C (They will pass this year but will exhaust their maximum 20-hour electronic
media allowance for the entire biennial renewal period)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Accreditation does not bypass the strict 20-hour biennial cap on
digital learning.
○ B is incorrect: Online learning is permitted, but capped.
○ D is incorrect: Electronic media can apply to clinical sciences, up to the maximum
limit.
The Mentor's Analysis: The Board caps digital convenience to ensure hands-on clinical
verification. When facing CE scheduling, the immediate priority is tracking the 20-hour biennial
limit. By utilizing in-person seminars for the balance, you bypass the common trap of audit
,failure. Professional/Academic Intuition: Digital learning is a supplement, never a total
substitute for physical clinical presence.
Q2: A newly licensed practitioner receives their Georgia credential in April 2026. Regarding their
2026 CE requirements, which action is IMMEDIATELY required? A) Complete 20 hours prior to
December 31. B) Complete a prorated 15 hours prior to December 31. C) Submit a waiver to the
Board to defer the hours to 2027. D) No action is required, as successful candidates are
automatically exempt in their initial calendar year of licensure.
● The Answer: D (No action is required, as successful candidates are automatically exempt
in their initial calendar year of licensure)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: The rule explicitly provides an exemption for the initial year.
○ B is incorrect: Georgia does not utilize a prorated CE formula for new licensees.
○ C is incorrect: The exemption is automatic; a waiver request is an unnecessary
administrative error.
The Mentor's Analysis: New practitioners are granted an administrative runway. When facing
first-year audits, the immediate priority is recognizing the calendar-year exemption. By utilizing
the automatic exemption rule, you bypass the common trap of redundant educational spending.
Professional/Academic Intuition: The year your license is printed is your year of CE
amnesty.
Q3: A patient's attorney submits a HIPAA-compliant request for medical records. The patient
owes the clinic $1,500. Based on O.C.G.A. 31-33-2, what is the FIRST compliant action? A)
Withhold the records until the $1,500 balance is satisfied. B) Release the records within 30 days
regardless of the outstanding financial balance. C) Release only the intake forms and withhold
the clinical SOAP notes. D) Demand a $500 administrative retainer before searching for the
records.
● The Answer: B (Release the records within 30 days regardless of the outstanding
financial balance)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Holding medical records hostage for debt collection is illegal in
Georgia.
○ C is incorrect: The provider must furnish a "complete and current copy" of the
record.
○ D is incorrect: Providers may only charge state-mandated maximum retrieval fees,
not arbitrary retainers.
The Mentor's Analysis: Healthcare data belongs to the patient. When facing a records request
with debt, the immediate priority is separating the clinical release from the financial dispute. By
utilizing prompt statutory release, you bypass the common trap of extortionate record
withholding. Professional/Academic Intuition: Records are clinical artifacts, not financial
collateral.
Q4: A practitioner utilizes non-invasive cold laser therapy to treat a rotator cuff strain. Under
O.C.G.A. § 43-9-16, what is the minimum prerequisite to perform this specific action? A) A
general chiropractic license. B) 50 hours of coursework in physical therapy. C) 120 hours of
instruction in the proper utilization of therapeutic modalities. D) Medical board supervision.
● The Answer: C (120 hours of instruction in the proper utilization of therapeutic modalities)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: A baseline license allows adjustments; physiological therapeutics
require additional certification.
○ B is incorrect: 50 hours is legally insufficient.
, ○ D is incorrect: Medical supervision is not required; chiropractors have independent
authority once the 120-hour metric is met.
The Mentor's Analysis: Modalities alter tissue state through energy. When facing the use of
physiological therapeutics, the immediate priority is verifying the 120-hour educational
threshold. By utilizing certified modality training, you bypass the common trap of practicing
outside the scope. Professional/Academic Intuition: Adjusting an articulation is inherent;
altering tissue with energy is earned via 120 hours.
Q5: A chiropractor decides to close their physical office and transition entirely to consulting.
Regarding their physical patient records, which action is MOST APPROPRIATE under Rule
100-7-.07? A) Shred all records immediately upon lease termination. B) Transfer records to a
digital cloud and delete the originals without notice. C) Post a legal notice of closing in the local
newspaper, allowing not less than 30 days for retrieval. D) Send a text message giving patients
48 hours to claim their files.
● The Answer: C (Post a legal notice of closing in the local newspaper, allowing not less
than 30 days for retrieval)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: Adult records must be retained for 10 years; destruction constitutes
spoliation.
○ B is incorrect: Patients must be notified of where their health data is residing.
○ D is incorrect: 48 hours and a text message do not satisfy the statutory requirement
of a local legal organ notice.
The Mentor's Analysis: Closing a business does not close your custodial liability. When facing
practice closure, the immediate priority is ensuring legal public notification. By utilizing the
30-day legal organ notice, you bypass the common trap of patient abandonment.
Professional/Academic Intuition: Your custodial duty to the record outlives your lease on
the building.
Q6: An adult patient's last date of service was June 1, 2020. Based on Georgia medical record
retention laws, when is the earliest the record can be legally destroyed? A) June 1, 2025 B)
June 1, 2027 C) June 1, 2030 D) June 1, 2035
● The Answer: C (June 1, 2030)
● Distractor Analysis:
○ A is incorrect: 5 years is insufficient for medical records in Georgia.
○ B is incorrect: 7 years applies to certain physician classes, but Rule 100-7-.07
dictates 10 years for chiropractors.
○ D is incorrect: 15 years exceeds the mandated minimum, though permitted, 10
years is the exact earliest threshold.
The Mentor's Analysis: Records are legal shields against future claims. When facing archival
audits, the immediate priority is securing the 10-year timeline. By utilizing automated 10-year
archival holds, you bypass the common trap of premature spoliation of evidence.
Professional/Academic Intuition: Adult records are locked in a 10-year vault from the date of
the final adjustment.
Q7: A practitioner advertises a "Free Spinal Examination." A patient receives the exam, and the
practitioner subsequently bills the patient's major medical insurance $150 for the encounter.
Based on Advertising Rule 100-4-.01, which conclusion is MOST ACCURATE? A) This is
permissible because the patient did not pay out-of-pocket. B) This constitutes unprofessional
conduct, as compensation was requested from a third party for a "free" service. C) This is legal
as long as the insurance company pays the claim. D) This is acceptable if the patient signed an
assignment of benefits.
