Test Bank for Safe Maternity and Pediatric Nursing Care 3rd Edition
(F.A Davis , 2026) by Luanne Linnard Palmer,
, Antepartum Nursing Care Exam.
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks’ gestation. Which finding requires immediate
follow-up?
a) Morning sickness
b) Urinary frequency
c) Painless vaginal bleeding
d) Breast tenderness
Answer: c
Rationale: Painless vaginal bleeding in the first trimester may indicate an
impending miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Morning sickness, urinary frequency,
and breast tenderness are common early pregnancy symptoms.
2. A pregnant client’s rubella titer is 1:8. What is the nurse’s priority action?
a) Document as immune
b) Administer MMR vaccine postpartum
c) Isolate the client immediately
d) Repeat titer in 2 weeks
Answer: b
*Rationale: A titer <1:10 indicates non-immunity. MMR is a live vaccine contraindicated
during pregnancy but should be given postpartum to protect future pregnancies.*
3. A nurse teaches a client about kegel exercises. What is the primary goal?
a) Prevent constipation
b) Strengthen pelvic floor muscles
c) Reduce back pain
d) Increase fetal movement
Answer: b
Rationale: Kegel exercises strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle, which supports
the bladder and uterus, reducing stress incontinence and preparing for labor.
4. At 36 weeks, a client reports regular contractions every 5 minutes. What should the
nurse do first?
a) Tell the client to drink water and rest
b) Assess for cervical change
c) Send client home
d) Administer terbutaline
Answer: b
Rationale: Regular contractions before 37 weeks require evaluation for preterm
labor. Cervical change confirms true labor.
,5. A client with gestational diabetes is reviewing diet instructions. Which statement
indicates understanding?
a) “I can eat unlimited fruit.”
b) “I should avoid all carbohydrates.”
c) “I will eat small, frequent meals.”
d) “I don’t need to check my blood sugar.”
Answer: c
Rationale: Small, frequent meals help maintain stable blood glucose levels.
Carbohydrates should be distributed, not eliminated.
6. A nurse notes a client’s blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg at 32 weeks. Urine dipstick
shows 2+ protein. Which condition is suspected?
a) Gestational hypertension
b) Chronic hypertension
c) Preeclampsia
d) Eclampsia
Answer: c
*Rationale: New-onset hypertension after 20 weeks with proteinuria defines
preeclampsia. Eclampsia requires seizures.*
7. A pregnant woman reports leg pain and swelling in one calf. What is the priority action?
a) Massage the calf
b) Do not massage; order a Doppler ultrasound
c) Apply warm compresses
d) Encourage ambulation
Answer: b
Rationale: Unilateral calf pain/swelling suggests deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Massage could dislodge a clot, causing pulmonary embolism.
8. A client at 28 weeks asks about the kick count. What is normal?
a) At least 5 kicks per hour
b) At least 15 kicks per 12 hours
c) At least 10 kicks per 2 hours
d) Any movement is fine
Answer: c
Rationale: The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends
at least 10 movements in 2 hours. Fewer warrants evaluation.
9. Which immunization is safe to give during pregnancy?
a) MMR
b) Varicella
c) Tdap
d) HPV
Answer: c
, Rationale: Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis) is recommended between 27–36
weeks to pass antibodies to the fetus. Others are live vaccines.
10. A nurse explains chloasma to a primigravida. Which statement is correct?
a) “It is a sign of liver disease.”
b) “It is a darkening of facial skin due to hormones.”
c) “It will never go away.”
d) “It requires immediate treatment.”
Answer: b
Rationale: Chloasma (mask of pregnancy) is benign hyperpigmentation caused by
estrogen and progesterone. It often fades postpartum.
11. A client asks about taking ibuprofen for headaches at 30 weeks. What is the best
response?
a) “It is safe at any gestation.”
b) “Avoid ibuprofen; it can cause fetal renal issues and premature ductal closure.”
c) “Use a double dose for migraines.”
d) “Only take it in the third trimester.”
Answer: b
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen are avoided after 30 weeks due to risk of
premature closure of the ductus arteriosus and oligohydramnios.
12. A nurse is assessing a client at 10 weeks with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which lab
finding is most concerning?
a) Urine ketones 1+
b) Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
c) Slight weight loss
d) Hematocrit 36%
Answer: b
Rationale: Potassium 2.8 is severely low and can cause cardiac arrhythmias.
Hypokalemia requires IV replacement.
13. A client with placenta previa is on bed rest. Which activity is allowed?
a) Vaginal examinations
b) Light upper body exercises
c) Sexual intercourse
d) Heavy lifting
Answer: b
Rationale: Placenta previa requires pelvic rest. Light upper body exercise is
acceptable; anything inserting into vagina is contraindicated.
14. A nurse provides education on group B streptococcus (GBS) screening. When is it
typically done?
a) 12–14 weeks
b) 20–24 weeks
(F.A Davis , 2026) by Luanne Linnard Palmer,
, Antepartum Nursing Care Exam.
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks’ gestation. Which finding requires immediate
follow-up?
a) Morning sickness
b) Urinary frequency
c) Painless vaginal bleeding
d) Breast tenderness
Answer: c
Rationale: Painless vaginal bleeding in the first trimester may indicate an
impending miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Morning sickness, urinary frequency,
and breast tenderness are common early pregnancy symptoms.
2. A pregnant client’s rubella titer is 1:8. What is the nurse’s priority action?
a) Document as immune
b) Administer MMR vaccine postpartum
c) Isolate the client immediately
d) Repeat titer in 2 weeks
Answer: b
*Rationale: A titer <1:10 indicates non-immunity. MMR is a live vaccine contraindicated
during pregnancy but should be given postpartum to protect future pregnancies.*
3. A nurse teaches a client about kegel exercises. What is the primary goal?
a) Prevent constipation
b) Strengthen pelvic floor muscles
c) Reduce back pain
d) Increase fetal movement
Answer: b
Rationale: Kegel exercises strengthen the pubococcygeus muscle, which supports
the bladder and uterus, reducing stress incontinence and preparing for labor.
4. At 36 weeks, a client reports regular contractions every 5 minutes. What should the
nurse do first?
a) Tell the client to drink water and rest
b) Assess for cervical change
c) Send client home
d) Administer terbutaline
Answer: b
Rationale: Regular contractions before 37 weeks require evaluation for preterm
labor. Cervical change confirms true labor.
,5. A client with gestational diabetes is reviewing diet instructions. Which statement
indicates understanding?
a) “I can eat unlimited fruit.”
b) “I should avoid all carbohydrates.”
c) “I will eat small, frequent meals.”
d) “I don’t need to check my blood sugar.”
Answer: c
Rationale: Small, frequent meals help maintain stable blood glucose levels.
Carbohydrates should be distributed, not eliminated.
6. A nurse notes a client’s blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg at 32 weeks. Urine dipstick
shows 2+ protein. Which condition is suspected?
a) Gestational hypertension
b) Chronic hypertension
c) Preeclampsia
d) Eclampsia
Answer: c
*Rationale: New-onset hypertension after 20 weeks with proteinuria defines
preeclampsia. Eclampsia requires seizures.*
7. A pregnant woman reports leg pain and swelling in one calf. What is the priority action?
a) Massage the calf
b) Do not massage; order a Doppler ultrasound
c) Apply warm compresses
d) Encourage ambulation
Answer: b
Rationale: Unilateral calf pain/swelling suggests deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Massage could dislodge a clot, causing pulmonary embolism.
8. A client at 28 weeks asks about the kick count. What is normal?
a) At least 5 kicks per hour
b) At least 15 kicks per 12 hours
c) At least 10 kicks per 2 hours
d) Any movement is fine
Answer: c
Rationale: The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists recommends
at least 10 movements in 2 hours. Fewer warrants evaluation.
9. Which immunization is safe to give during pregnancy?
a) MMR
b) Varicella
c) Tdap
d) HPV
Answer: c
, Rationale: Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis) is recommended between 27–36
weeks to pass antibodies to the fetus. Others are live vaccines.
10. A nurse explains chloasma to a primigravida. Which statement is correct?
a) “It is a sign of liver disease.”
b) “It is a darkening of facial skin due to hormones.”
c) “It will never go away.”
d) “It requires immediate treatment.”
Answer: b
Rationale: Chloasma (mask of pregnancy) is benign hyperpigmentation caused by
estrogen and progesterone. It often fades postpartum.
11. A client asks about taking ibuprofen for headaches at 30 weeks. What is the best
response?
a) “It is safe at any gestation.”
b) “Avoid ibuprofen; it can cause fetal renal issues and premature ductal closure.”
c) “Use a double dose for migraines.”
d) “Only take it in the third trimester.”
Answer: b
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen are avoided after 30 weeks due to risk of
premature closure of the ductus arteriosus and oligohydramnios.
12. A nurse is assessing a client at 10 weeks with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which lab
finding is most concerning?
a) Urine ketones 1+
b) Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
c) Slight weight loss
d) Hematocrit 36%
Answer: b
Rationale: Potassium 2.8 is severely low and can cause cardiac arrhythmias.
Hypokalemia requires IV replacement.
13. A client with placenta previa is on bed rest. Which activity is allowed?
a) Vaginal examinations
b) Light upper body exercises
c) Sexual intercourse
d) Heavy lifting
Answer: b
Rationale: Placenta previa requires pelvic rest. Light upper body exercise is
acceptable; anything inserting into vagina is contraindicated.
14. A nurse provides education on group B streptococcus (GBS) screening. When is it
typically done?
a) 12–14 weeks
b) 20–24 weeks
