URS 5432 FNP I MIDTERM 2026 |
N
Modules 1-6 | Questions & Answers |
UTA Nursing | Family Nurse
Practitioner | PDF | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
[MODULE 1: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSTIC REASONING - 60
Questions]
1.1 Comprehensive Health History & HPI
Question 1
A 45-year-old patient states, "I've been having chest pain for the past 3 days." Which
component of the health history does this represent?
A) History of Present Illness
B) Chief Complaint
C) Past Medical History
D) Review of Systems
[CORRECT] B) Chief Complaint
Rationale: The chief complaint is the primary reason the patient is seeking care, documented in
the patient's own words. "I've been having chest pain for the past 3 days" is a direct quote
describing the main concern. The History of Present Illness (HPI) would expand on this using
OLDCARTS (Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating/Relieving factors, Timing,
Severity).
Question 2
When documenting the HPI using the OLDCARTS mnemonic, which element describes what
makes the symptom better or worse?
A) Characteristics
B) Timing
C) Aggravating and Relieving factors
D) Severity
[CORRECT] C) Aggravating and Relieving factors
Rationale: The "A" and "R" in OLDCARTS stand for Aggravating and Relieving factors—what
makes the symptom worse or better. Characteristics describe quality (sharp, dull, burning),
Timing refers to when symptoms occur, and Severity is typically rated on a 0-10 scale.
Question 3
A patient with diabetes, hypertension, and a previous myocardial infarction is being evaluated.
Which component of the health history captures this information?
, ) Family History
A
B) Social History
C) Past Medical History
D) Chief Complaint
[CORRECT] C) Past Medical History
Rationale: The Past Medical History (PMH) documents chronic illnesses, hospitalizations,
surgeries, injuries, and transfusions. Diabetes, hypertension, and previous MI are chronic
conditions and past significant events that belong in the PMH, not Family History (genetic
patterns), Social History (lifestyle factors), or Chief Complaint (current reason for visit).
Question 4
Which minimum family members should be included in a standard family history assessment?
A) Parents only
B) Parents and siblings only
C) Parents, siblings, and children
D) Grandparents, parents, and siblings
[CORRECT] C) Parents, siblings, and children
Rationale: At minimum, family history should include first-degree relatives: parents, siblings, and
children. These relatives share approximately 50% of genetic material with the patient and
provide the most relevant information about genetic and familial disease patterns. Grandparents
may be included for hereditary conditions but are not the minimum requirement.
Question 5
Which component of the social history would document a patient's pack-year smoking history?
A) Occupational history
B) Tobacco, alcohol, and drug use
C) Diet and exercise patterns
D) Living situation
[CORRECT] B) Tobacco, alcohol, and drug use
Rationale: Pack-year smoking history (number of packs per day × number of years smoked) is
documented under tobacco use within the social history. This quantifies smoking exposure and
is critical for calculating cardiovascular risk, cancer screening eligibility, and respiratory disease
risk.
Question 6
During a Review of Systems (ROS), a patient mentions occasional headaches and seasonal
allergies. This represents which type of ROS finding?
A) Pertinent positive
B) Pertinent negative
C) Associated symptom
D) Cardinal symptom
[CORRECT] A) Pertinent positive
Rationale: Pertinent positives are symptoms the patient confirms having during the ROS.
Pertinent negatives are symptoms the patient denies. Headaches and seasonal allergies are
confirmed symptoms (pertinent positives) even if not related to the chief complaint. The ROS
systematically reviews all body systems regardless of chief complaint.
Question 7
, 28-year-old patient presents with fatigue. The FNP asks about symptoms in every body
A
system from head to toe. This systematic approach represents:
A) Focused physical examination
B) Review of Systems
C) Problem-focused history
D) Interval history
[CORRECT] B) Review of Systems
Rationale: The Review of Systems (ROS) is a systematic head-to-toe inventory of symptoms
across all body systems. It can be comprehensive (all systems) or focused (limited systems
related to chief complaint). For vague complaints like fatigue, a comprehensive ROS helps
identify potential etiologies.
1.2 Physical Examination Techniques
Question 8
The FNP observes the patient's gait, posture, and general appearance upon entering the
examination room. This represents which examination technique?
A) Palpation
B) Percussion
C) Inspection
D) Auscultation
[CORRECT] C) Inspection
Rationale: Inspection is visual observation of the patient and begins the moment the FNP meets
the patient—before formal examination starts. General survey includes assessment of
appearance, behavior, mobility, and vital signs at a glance. Palpation uses touch, percussion
involves tapping, and auscultation requires listening.
Question 9
When assessing skin temperature and moisture, which examination technique is being
employed?
A) Inspection
B) Palpation
C) Percussion
D) Auscultation
[CORRECT] B) Palpation
Rationale: Palpation uses touch to assess texture, temperature, moisture, organ location, size,
consistency, and tenderness. The dorsal hand (back of hand) is most sensitive to temperature,
while fingertips assess texture and moisture. Inspection would only assess color, not
temperature or moisture.
Question 10
The FNP taps the patient's abdomen to assess underlying structures and notes tympany over
the stomach area. This technique is:
A) Direct percussion
B) Indirect percussion
C) Immediate percussion
D) Fist percussion
[CORRECT] B) Indirect percussion
, ationale: Indirect (mediate) percussion involves placing the non-dominant hand on the body
R
surface and striking the distal phalanx with the dominant hand's middle finger. Tympany
(drum-like sound) indicates air/gas; dullness indicates solid organs or fluid. Direct percussion
strikes the body surface directly; fist percussion assesses kidney tenderness.
Question 11
During cardiac examination, the FNP places the stethoscope over the mitral valve area to listen
for S1 and S2 heart sounds. This is:
A) Inspection
B) Palpation
C) Percussion
D) Auscultation
[CORRECT] D) Auscultation
Rationale: Auscultation is listening to sounds produced by the body, including heart sounds,
lung sounds, and bowel sounds. The bell of the stethoscope detects low-pitched sounds (S3,
S4, murmurs), while the diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds (S1, S2, breath sounds).
Question 12
When percussing the chest, the FNP hears resonance. This sound indicates:
A) Consolidation
B) Normal lung tissue
C) Pleural effusion
D) Pneumothorax
[CORRECT] B) Normal lung tissue
Rationale: Resonance is the normal percussion sound over healthy lung tissue—low-pitched,
hollow, and sustained. Dullness indicates consolidation or effusion (fluid/solid replacing air),
hyperresonance suggests pneumothorax or COPD (excess air), and flatness is heard over bone
or muscle.
Question 13
The FNP uses the ulnar surface of the hand to detect cardiac thrills. This represents:
A) Light palpation
B) Deep palpation
C) Ballottement
D) Palpation using the base of the hand
[CORRECT] D) Palpation using the base of the hand
Rationale: The base (ulnar surface) of the hand is used to detect thrills (palpable vibrations from
turbulent blood flow, indicating significant murmurs). Light palpation uses fingertips for surface
characteristics; deep palpation assesses organ size/consistency; ballottement is a specific
technique for detecting floating organs or fetuses.
1.3 Diagnostic Reasoning & Test Characteristics
Question 14
A screening test for diabetes correctly identifies 85% of patients who actually have diabetes.
This represents:
A) Specificity
B) Positive Predictive Value
C) Sensitivity
N
Modules 1-6 | Questions & Answers |
UTA Nursing | Family Nurse
Practitioner | PDF | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
[MODULE 1: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSTIC REASONING - 60
Questions]
1.1 Comprehensive Health History & HPI
Question 1
A 45-year-old patient states, "I've been having chest pain for the past 3 days." Which
component of the health history does this represent?
A) History of Present Illness
B) Chief Complaint
C) Past Medical History
D) Review of Systems
[CORRECT] B) Chief Complaint
Rationale: The chief complaint is the primary reason the patient is seeking care, documented in
the patient's own words. "I've been having chest pain for the past 3 days" is a direct quote
describing the main concern. The History of Present Illness (HPI) would expand on this using
OLDCARTS (Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating/Relieving factors, Timing,
Severity).
Question 2
When documenting the HPI using the OLDCARTS mnemonic, which element describes what
makes the symptom better or worse?
A) Characteristics
B) Timing
C) Aggravating and Relieving factors
D) Severity
[CORRECT] C) Aggravating and Relieving factors
Rationale: The "A" and "R" in OLDCARTS stand for Aggravating and Relieving factors—what
makes the symptom worse or better. Characteristics describe quality (sharp, dull, burning),
Timing refers to when symptoms occur, and Severity is typically rated on a 0-10 scale.
Question 3
A patient with diabetes, hypertension, and a previous myocardial infarction is being evaluated.
Which component of the health history captures this information?
, ) Family History
A
B) Social History
C) Past Medical History
D) Chief Complaint
[CORRECT] C) Past Medical History
Rationale: The Past Medical History (PMH) documents chronic illnesses, hospitalizations,
surgeries, injuries, and transfusions. Diabetes, hypertension, and previous MI are chronic
conditions and past significant events that belong in the PMH, not Family History (genetic
patterns), Social History (lifestyle factors), or Chief Complaint (current reason for visit).
Question 4
Which minimum family members should be included in a standard family history assessment?
A) Parents only
B) Parents and siblings only
C) Parents, siblings, and children
D) Grandparents, parents, and siblings
[CORRECT] C) Parents, siblings, and children
Rationale: At minimum, family history should include first-degree relatives: parents, siblings, and
children. These relatives share approximately 50% of genetic material with the patient and
provide the most relevant information about genetic and familial disease patterns. Grandparents
may be included for hereditary conditions but are not the minimum requirement.
Question 5
Which component of the social history would document a patient's pack-year smoking history?
A) Occupational history
B) Tobacco, alcohol, and drug use
C) Diet and exercise patterns
D) Living situation
[CORRECT] B) Tobacco, alcohol, and drug use
Rationale: Pack-year smoking history (number of packs per day × number of years smoked) is
documented under tobacco use within the social history. This quantifies smoking exposure and
is critical for calculating cardiovascular risk, cancer screening eligibility, and respiratory disease
risk.
Question 6
During a Review of Systems (ROS), a patient mentions occasional headaches and seasonal
allergies. This represents which type of ROS finding?
A) Pertinent positive
B) Pertinent negative
C) Associated symptom
D) Cardinal symptom
[CORRECT] A) Pertinent positive
Rationale: Pertinent positives are symptoms the patient confirms having during the ROS.
Pertinent negatives are symptoms the patient denies. Headaches and seasonal allergies are
confirmed symptoms (pertinent positives) even if not related to the chief complaint. The ROS
systematically reviews all body systems regardless of chief complaint.
Question 7
, 28-year-old patient presents with fatigue. The FNP asks about symptoms in every body
A
system from head to toe. This systematic approach represents:
A) Focused physical examination
B) Review of Systems
C) Problem-focused history
D) Interval history
[CORRECT] B) Review of Systems
Rationale: The Review of Systems (ROS) is a systematic head-to-toe inventory of symptoms
across all body systems. It can be comprehensive (all systems) or focused (limited systems
related to chief complaint). For vague complaints like fatigue, a comprehensive ROS helps
identify potential etiologies.
1.2 Physical Examination Techniques
Question 8
The FNP observes the patient's gait, posture, and general appearance upon entering the
examination room. This represents which examination technique?
A) Palpation
B) Percussion
C) Inspection
D) Auscultation
[CORRECT] C) Inspection
Rationale: Inspection is visual observation of the patient and begins the moment the FNP meets
the patient—before formal examination starts. General survey includes assessment of
appearance, behavior, mobility, and vital signs at a glance. Palpation uses touch, percussion
involves tapping, and auscultation requires listening.
Question 9
When assessing skin temperature and moisture, which examination technique is being
employed?
A) Inspection
B) Palpation
C) Percussion
D) Auscultation
[CORRECT] B) Palpation
Rationale: Palpation uses touch to assess texture, temperature, moisture, organ location, size,
consistency, and tenderness. The dorsal hand (back of hand) is most sensitive to temperature,
while fingertips assess texture and moisture. Inspection would only assess color, not
temperature or moisture.
Question 10
The FNP taps the patient's abdomen to assess underlying structures and notes tympany over
the stomach area. This technique is:
A) Direct percussion
B) Indirect percussion
C) Immediate percussion
D) Fist percussion
[CORRECT] B) Indirect percussion
, ationale: Indirect (mediate) percussion involves placing the non-dominant hand on the body
R
surface and striking the distal phalanx with the dominant hand's middle finger. Tympany
(drum-like sound) indicates air/gas; dullness indicates solid organs or fluid. Direct percussion
strikes the body surface directly; fist percussion assesses kidney tenderness.
Question 11
During cardiac examination, the FNP places the stethoscope over the mitral valve area to listen
for S1 and S2 heart sounds. This is:
A) Inspection
B) Palpation
C) Percussion
D) Auscultation
[CORRECT] D) Auscultation
Rationale: Auscultation is listening to sounds produced by the body, including heart sounds,
lung sounds, and bowel sounds. The bell of the stethoscope detects low-pitched sounds (S3,
S4, murmurs), while the diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds (S1, S2, breath sounds).
Question 12
When percussing the chest, the FNP hears resonance. This sound indicates:
A) Consolidation
B) Normal lung tissue
C) Pleural effusion
D) Pneumothorax
[CORRECT] B) Normal lung tissue
Rationale: Resonance is the normal percussion sound over healthy lung tissue—low-pitched,
hollow, and sustained. Dullness indicates consolidation or effusion (fluid/solid replacing air),
hyperresonance suggests pneumothorax or COPD (excess air), and flatness is heard over bone
or muscle.
Question 13
The FNP uses the ulnar surface of the hand to detect cardiac thrills. This represents:
A) Light palpation
B) Deep palpation
C) Ballottement
D) Palpation using the base of the hand
[CORRECT] D) Palpation using the base of the hand
Rationale: The base (ulnar surface) of the hand is used to detect thrills (palpable vibrations from
turbulent blood flow, indicating significant murmurs). Light palpation uses fingertips for surface
characteristics; deep palpation assesses organ size/consistency; ballottement is a specific
technique for detecting floating organs or fetuses.
1.3 Diagnostic Reasoning & Test Characteristics
Question 14
A screening test for diabetes correctly identifies 85% of patients who actually have diabetes.
This represents:
A) Specificity
B) Positive Predictive Value
C) Sensitivity
