PN MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING ATI
PROCTORED EXAM PRACTICE TEST (2026
EDITION) | VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS & DETAILED
RATIONALES | ATI NURSING SUCCESS STUDY
GUIDE | HIGH-YIELD PDF
PN MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING ATI PROCTORED EXAM PRACTICE TEST
(2026 EDITION)
VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS & DETAILED EXPERT
RATIONALES | ATI NURSING SUCCESS STUDY GUIDE
• This practice test features 200 high-yield multiple-choice questions with
bolded correct answers and detailed EXPERT RATIONALE designed to simulate
the real ATI proctored exam experience and reinforce clinical reasoning.
• Use this guide by reading each question carefully, selecting your answer
before checking the correct one, and reviewing the EXPERT RATIONALE to
understand the "why" behind every clinical decision — this deepens retention
and boosts exam performance.
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 10 weeks pregnant and asks about the
purpose of the first prenatal visit. Which of the following is the primary
purpose of the initial prenatal visit?
A. To perform a nonstress test
B. To schedule the client for an amniocentesis
C. To assess fetal lung maturity
D. To administer the rubella vaccine
E. To establish a baseline of the client's health status and confirm pregnancy
, Correct Answer: E. To establish a baseline of the client's health status and
confirm pregnancy
EXPERT RATIONALE: The primary purpose of the first prenatal visit is to
confirm the pregnancy, establish baseline health data, and identify risk factors.
NSTs, amniocentesis, and lung maturity tests are performed later in pregnancy. The
rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy.
2. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client who is gravida 4, para 2,
abortion 1. How many living children does this client currently have?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
E. 0
Correct Answer: D. 2
EXPERT RATIONALE: Para refers to births after 20 weeks of gestation
regardless of outcome. This client has had 2 births (para 2), 1 abortion
(spontaneous or induced before 20 weeks), and is currently pregnant (gravida 4).
Para does not always equal living children, but with no additional information, 2 is
the most supported answer.
3. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client
whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on July 10. Using Nägele's rule, what
is the EDD?
A. April 3
B. April 17
C. May 3
,D. March 10
E. May 17
Correct Answer: B. April 17
EXPERT RATIONALE: Nägele's rule: subtract 3 months from LMP and add 7
days. July 10 minus 3 months = April 10, plus 7 days = April 17. This is the standard
method used to calculate the EDD.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 weeks pregnant. Which of the
following findings is expected at this gestational age?
A. Fetal heart tones heard with a fetoscope
B. Quickening reported by the client
C. Fundal height at the umbilicus
D. Linea nigra present
E. Fetal heart tones heard with a Doppler device
Correct Answer: E. Fetal heart tones heard with a Doppler device
EXPERT RATIONALE: Fetal heart tones can be detected by Doppler as early as
10–12 weeks. A fetoscope detects FHT around 18–20 weeks. Quickening occurs at
16–20 weeks. Fundal height reaches the umbilicus at 20 weeks. Linea nigra typically
appears in the second trimester.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly pregnant client about physiological
changes during pregnancy. Which of the following changes is expected?
A. Increased blood pressure throughout pregnancy
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. Increased white blood cell count
D. Decreased tidal volume
, E. Elevated serum iron levels
Correct Answer: C. Increased white blood cell count
EXPERT RATIONALE: WBC levels normally increase during pregnancy due to
physiological stress. Blood pressure typically decreases in the first and second
trimesters. Cardiac output increases. Tidal volume increases. Serum iron levels may
decrease due to hemodilution and increased demand.
6. A nurse is caring for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy who reports
nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
provide?
A. "Eat three large meals per day to maintain energy."
B. "Drink large amounts of fluids with your meals."
C. "Eat crackers or dry toast before getting out of bed."
D. "Avoid all carbohydrates throughout the day."
E. "Take antacids before each meal."
Correct Answer: C. "Eat crackers or dry toast before getting out of bed."
EXPERT RATIONALE: Eating small, dry, carbohydrate-rich foods before rising
helps reduce morning sickness. Large meals worsen nausea. Fluids with meals can
increase nausea. Carbohydrates are not contraindicated; they are recommended.
Antacids are not indicated for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy.
7. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is 28 weeks
pregnant. Which of the following results requires further follow-up?
A. Hemoglobin of 11.5 g/dL
B. Blood glucose of 145 mg/dL on 1-hour glucose challenge test
C. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
D. Hematocrit of 34%
PROCTORED EXAM PRACTICE TEST (2026
EDITION) | VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS & DETAILED
RATIONALES | ATI NURSING SUCCESS STUDY
GUIDE | HIGH-YIELD PDF
PN MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING ATI PROCTORED EXAM PRACTICE TEST
(2026 EDITION)
VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS & DETAILED EXPERT
RATIONALES | ATI NURSING SUCCESS STUDY GUIDE
• This practice test features 200 high-yield multiple-choice questions with
bolded correct answers and detailed EXPERT RATIONALE designed to simulate
the real ATI proctored exam experience and reinforce clinical reasoning.
• Use this guide by reading each question carefully, selecting your answer
before checking the correct one, and reviewing the EXPERT RATIONALE to
understand the "why" behind every clinical decision — this deepens retention
and boosts exam performance.
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 10 weeks pregnant and asks about the
purpose of the first prenatal visit. Which of the following is the primary
purpose of the initial prenatal visit?
A. To perform a nonstress test
B. To schedule the client for an amniocentesis
C. To assess fetal lung maturity
D. To administer the rubella vaccine
E. To establish a baseline of the client's health status and confirm pregnancy
, Correct Answer: E. To establish a baseline of the client's health status and
confirm pregnancy
EXPERT RATIONALE: The primary purpose of the first prenatal visit is to
confirm the pregnancy, establish baseline health data, and identify risk factors.
NSTs, amniocentesis, and lung maturity tests are performed later in pregnancy. The
rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy.
2. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client who is gravida 4, para 2,
abortion 1. How many living children does this client currently have?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
E. 0
Correct Answer: D. 2
EXPERT RATIONALE: Para refers to births after 20 weeks of gestation
regardless of outcome. This client has had 2 births (para 2), 1 abortion
(spontaneous or induced before 20 weeks), and is currently pregnant (gravida 4).
Para does not always equal living children, but with no additional information, 2 is
the most supported answer.
3. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client
whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on July 10. Using Nägele's rule, what
is the EDD?
A. April 3
B. April 17
C. May 3
,D. March 10
E. May 17
Correct Answer: B. April 17
EXPERT RATIONALE: Nägele's rule: subtract 3 months from LMP and add 7
days. July 10 minus 3 months = April 10, plus 7 days = April 17. This is the standard
method used to calculate the EDD.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 weeks pregnant. Which of the
following findings is expected at this gestational age?
A. Fetal heart tones heard with a fetoscope
B. Quickening reported by the client
C. Fundal height at the umbilicus
D. Linea nigra present
E. Fetal heart tones heard with a Doppler device
Correct Answer: E. Fetal heart tones heard with a Doppler device
EXPERT RATIONALE: Fetal heart tones can be detected by Doppler as early as
10–12 weeks. A fetoscope detects FHT around 18–20 weeks. Quickening occurs at
16–20 weeks. Fundal height reaches the umbilicus at 20 weeks. Linea nigra typically
appears in the second trimester.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly pregnant client about physiological
changes during pregnancy. Which of the following changes is expected?
A. Increased blood pressure throughout pregnancy
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. Increased white blood cell count
D. Decreased tidal volume
, E. Elevated serum iron levels
Correct Answer: C. Increased white blood cell count
EXPERT RATIONALE: WBC levels normally increase during pregnancy due to
physiological stress. Blood pressure typically decreases in the first and second
trimesters. Cardiac output increases. Tidal volume increases. Serum iron levels may
decrease due to hemodilution and increased demand.
6. A nurse is caring for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy who reports
nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
provide?
A. "Eat three large meals per day to maintain energy."
B. "Drink large amounts of fluids with your meals."
C. "Eat crackers or dry toast before getting out of bed."
D. "Avoid all carbohydrates throughout the day."
E. "Take antacids before each meal."
Correct Answer: C. "Eat crackers or dry toast before getting out of bed."
EXPERT RATIONALE: Eating small, dry, carbohydrate-rich foods before rising
helps reduce morning sickness. Large meals worsen nausea. Fluids with meals can
increase nausea. Carbohydrates are not contraindicated; they are recommended.
Antacids are not indicated for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy.
7. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is 28 weeks
pregnant. Which of the following results requires further follow-up?
A. Hemoglobin of 11.5 g/dL
B. Blood glucose of 145 mg/dL on 1-hour glucose challenge test
C. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
D. Hematocrit of 34%
