Actual Questions and Answers
100% Guarantee Pass
This Exam contains:
➢ 100% Guarantee Pass.
➢ Multiple-Choice (A–D), For Each Question.
➢ Each Question Includes The Correct Answer
➢ Rationale That Aligns with Atls Post Test 2025 Principles.
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1. Which of the following is the recommended method for treating frostbite?
A. Vasodilators
B. Warm water immersion at approximately 40°C
C. Padding and elevation only
D. Application of heat from a hairdryer
Answer: B. Warm water immersion at approximately 40°C
Rationale:
• Rapid rewarming in a circulating water bath at 37–40°C (approx.) is the standard of
care for frostbite management.
• Use of hairdryers or dry heat is contraindicated due to the risk of uneven heating and
tissue damage.
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2. Which of the following physical findings suggests a cause of hypotension other than
spinal cord injury?
A. Priapism
B. Bradycardia
C. Diaphragmatic breathing
D. Presence of deep tendon reflexes
Answer: D. Presence of deep tendon reflexes
Rationale:
,• Spinal shock typically presents with flaccidity and loss of reflexes below the level of
injury.
• Preserved or brisk deep tendon reflexes suggest that the hypotension is not solely due
to spinal cord injury.
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3. The primary indication for transferring a patient to a higher-level trauma center is:
A. Unavailability of a surgeon or operating staff
B. Multiple system injuries (including severe head injury)
C. Resource limitations as determined by the transferring doctor
D. Widened mediastinum on chest X-ray after blunt trauma
Answer: C. Resource limitations as determined by the transferring doctor
Rationale:
• Transfer is indicated when the current facility lacks the necessary resources—clinical
expertise, specialist availability, or equipment—to manage the patient effectively.
• The decision rests with the physician responsible for the patient’s care, based on local
capabilities.
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4. A young man has a gunshot wound to the mid-abdomen. He arrives hypotensive
(systolic blood pressure 58 mmHg) and does not improve despite rapid infusion of
warmed crystalloid fluids. The next most appropriate step is to:
A. Immediate laparotomy
B. Abdominal CT scan
C. Abdominal ultrasonography (FAST)
, D. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL)
Answer: A. Immediate laparotomy
Rationale:
• In the setting of penetrating abdominal trauma with persistent hypotension, the priority
is to control hemorrhage surgically.
• Diagnostic imaging (CT, FAST, DPL) is not indicated when the patient is profoundly
unstable and in obvious need of operative intervention.
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5. A 42-year-old man is trapped for several hours under an overturned tractor. He was
alert initially, but now is unconscious and shows no movement of his lower extremities
(even to painful stimuli). The most likely cause of this lower-extremity finding is:
A. Pelvic fracture
B. Central cord syndrome
C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
D. Bilateral compartment syndrome
Answer: D. Bilateral compartment syndrome
Rationale:
• Prolonged entrapment can lead to crush injury and compartment syndrome in the
lower extremities.
• Absence of movement and persistent neurological deficits in both legs can be
explained by compromised tissue perfusion and increased compartment pressures.
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