1|Page
NRNP 6675 Final Exam 2026/2027
NGN Test Bank with Correct
Questions and Verified Answers
Question 1
Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant
syndrome? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: Rapid dose escalation; parenteral route of administration;
higher potency typical antipsychotics
Rationale:
1. Rapid dose escalation increases the risk of developing neuroleptic
malignant syndrome (NMS).
2. Parenteral (injection) route of administration is associated with higher
NMS risk due to rapid absorption.
3. Higher potency typical antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol) have a greater
risk of causing NMS.
4. Age is also a risk factor, but the source specifically indicates these three.
,2|Page
Question 2
Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?
• A. Gender nonconformity
• B. Gender Discordance
• C. Transgender identity
• D. Gender dysphoria
Correct Answer: B. Gender Discordance
Rationale:
1. Gender discordance describes the mismatch between anatomical sex
and gender identity.
2. This term is used when an individual's gender identity does not align
with their sex assigned at birth.
3. It is distinct from gender nonconformity, which refers to behaviors
rather than identity.
4. The source indicates B as the correct answer.
Question 3
Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockage in the meso-cortical
pathway causing which of the following effects?
• A. Reduces negative symptoms
,3|Page
• B. Increases EPS
• C. Causes prolactinemia
• D. Reduces positive symptoms
Correct Answer: B. Increases EPS
Rationale:
1. The following options are incorrect: reduces negative symptoms, causes
prolactinemia, reduces positive symptoms.
2. D2 blockade in the mesocortical pathway is associated with increased
extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
3. Negative symptom reduction is more associated with other pathways or
serotonin activity.
4. Prolactinemia is caused by D2 blockade in the tuberoinfundibular
pathway, not the mesocortical pathway.
Question 4
Phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine exert their unique behavioral effects
by blocking which of the following receptors?
• A. GABA receptors
• B. Serotonin receptors
• C. Dopamine receptors
, 4|Page
• D. NMDA type receptors
Correct Answer: D. NMDA type receptors
Rationale:
1. The following options are incorrect: GABA, serotonin, dopamine
receptors.
2. PCP and ketamine are non-competitive NMDA receptor antagonists.
3. NMDA receptor blockade produces dissociative anesthetic effects.
4. This mechanism differs from GABA, serotonin, or dopamine receptor
actions.
Question 5
The diagnosis used to describe a syndrome characterized by specific s/s
resulting from recent ingestion or exposure to a substance is known as
which of the following?
• A. Substance intoxication
• B. Substance withdrawal
• C. Substance use disorder
• D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C. Substance use disorder
Rationale:
NRNP 6675 Final Exam 2026/2027
NGN Test Bank with Correct
Questions and Verified Answers
Question 1
Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant
syndrome? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: Rapid dose escalation; parenteral route of administration;
higher potency typical antipsychotics
Rationale:
1. Rapid dose escalation increases the risk of developing neuroleptic
malignant syndrome (NMS).
2. Parenteral (injection) route of administration is associated with higher
NMS risk due to rapid absorption.
3. Higher potency typical antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol) have a greater
risk of causing NMS.
4. Age is also a risk factor, but the source specifically indicates these three.
,2|Page
Question 2
Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?
• A. Gender nonconformity
• B. Gender Discordance
• C. Transgender identity
• D. Gender dysphoria
Correct Answer: B. Gender Discordance
Rationale:
1. Gender discordance describes the mismatch between anatomical sex
and gender identity.
2. This term is used when an individual's gender identity does not align
with their sex assigned at birth.
3. It is distinct from gender nonconformity, which refers to behaviors
rather than identity.
4. The source indicates B as the correct answer.
Question 3
Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockage in the meso-cortical
pathway causing which of the following effects?
• A. Reduces negative symptoms
,3|Page
• B. Increases EPS
• C. Causes prolactinemia
• D. Reduces positive symptoms
Correct Answer: B. Increases EPS
Rationale:
1. The following options are incorrect: reduces negative symptoms, causes
prolactinemia, reduces positive symptoms.
2. D2 blockade in the mesocortical pathway is associated with increased
extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
3. Negative symptom reduction is more associated with other pathways or
serotonin activity.
4. Prolactinemia is caused by D2 blockade in the tuberoinfundibular
pathway, not the mesocortical pathway.
Question 4
Phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine exert their unique behavioral effects
by blocking which of the following receptors?
• A. GABA receptors
• B. Serotonin receptors
• C. Dopamine receptors
, 4|Page
• D. NMDA type receptors
Correct Answer: D. NMDA type receptors
Rationale:
1. The following options are incorrect: GABA, serotonin, dopamine
receptors.
2. PCP and ketamine are non-competitive NMDA receptor antagonists.
3. NMDA receptor blockade produces dissociative anesthetic effects.
4. This mechanism differs from GABA, serotonin, or dopamine receptor
actions.
Question 5
The diagnosis used to describe a syndrome characterized by specific s/s
resulting from recent ingestion or exposure to a substance is known as
which of the following?
• A. Substance intoxication
• B. Substance withdrawal
• C. Substance use disorder
• D. All of the above
Correct Answer: C. Substance use disorder
Rationale:
