EFMB 2026 Study Guide with all Correct & 100%
Verified Answers |Latest Version |Already Graded
A+ (Just Released)
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior
(AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) ✔Correct Answer-
Portable x-ray machine
T/F Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic
evaluation (CRSE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. ✔Correct Answer-
FALSE - CT replaced CRSE. Only do CSRE in absence of CT.
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? ✔Correct Answer-
Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have ____ aprons and thyroid shields available near the
trauma bay for radiation safety ✔Correct Answer-LEAD
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? ✔Correct
Answer-Role 3
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition,
any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-ray unit.
The recommended minimal distance is ____. ✔Correct Answer-6 feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma
patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in
most trauma patients. FAST stands for ✔Correct Answer-Focused Abdominal Sonographic
Assessment for Trauma
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of ✔Correct Answer-98%
T/F The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric
injury. ✔Correct Answer-FALSE - Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage is 100% sensitive
T/F At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and emergency
physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency department on a hand held
portable device. ✔Correct Answer-True
,The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of ____ in certain
areas of the body. ✔Correct Answer-Free Intraperitoneal Fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You
are inspecting between which two organs? ✔Correct Answer-Liver and Kidney (Know your
anatomy/ their right is not your right)
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are
inspecting between which two organs? ✔Correct Answer-Spleen and Kidney
An 18g ____ IV is typically desires for Computed Tomography IV access. ✔Correct Answer-
Antecubital (AC)
T/F The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid organ
enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. ✔Correct Answer-True
T/F When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a scanning
protocol based on the adult settlings to include the doses of and rates of contrast
administration. ✔Correct Answer-False (MWD are the size/eight of a 7-10 year old kid, use
pediatric doses)
T/F All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent electronically
ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a backup. ✔Correct
Answer-True
T/F Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation Enduring
Freedom. ✔Correct Answer-False (Don't use magnetic when people are full of metal...)
All trauma patients arriving at a Role _____ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic
screening of injuries. ✔Correct Answer-Role 3
T/F Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at rise for aural trauma. ✔Correct Answer-
False
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: ✔Correct Answer-Hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the
ear), aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise), difficulty localizing sounds, difficulty
hearing in a noisy background, and vertigo.
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either ____ or ____.
✔Correct Answer-Temporary or permanent threshold shift
The ear, specifically the ____, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury. ✔Correct
Answer-Tympanic Membrane
,T/F The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of
spontaneous closure. ✔Correct Answer-True
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the
first ____ after injury. ✔Correct Answer-8 weeks
Acute management of infratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective documentation of
facial movement using the ____ scale. ✔Correct Answer-House-Brackmann Scale
T/F For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be
provided regardless of contraindications. ✔Correct Answer-False (Don't ignore
contraindications)
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? ✔Correct Answer-benign paroxysmal
positional vertigo (BPPV), damage to sensitive neuroepithelial rests within the inner ear,
perilymphatic fistula, infection of the inner ear or vestibular nerve.
All service members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute tinnitus,
muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should: ✔Correct Answer-educated and directed to self-
report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in the
middle ear? ✔Correct Answer-treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid-containing
topical antibiotic - do not flush
Hearing loss that persists ____ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or
audiogram. ✔Correct Answer-72 hours
T/F Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo ✔Correct Answer-True
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should:
✔Correct Answer-have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing
as soon as possible
Patients with TTS greater than ____ losses in three consecutive frequencies should be
considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when not
otherwise contraindicated. ✔Correct Answer-25 dB
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? ✔Correct
Answer-comatose patient, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns over 40%
Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)
, Burn casualties with injuries greater than ____ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk of
hypothermia. ✔Correct Answer-20%
T/F When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride blisters
and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or wet clean sheet. ✔Correct Answer-False
(cover, but do not debride until at a surgical facility)
Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of ____. ✔Correct Answer-Nines
Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for
fluid resuscitation? ✔Correct Answer-First Degree
Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? ✔Correct Answer-
Second Degree
Which classification of burns appear red, do not blister, and blanch readily? ✔Correct Answer-
1st Degree
Which classification of burns appear leathery, dry, non-blanching, are insensate, and often
contain thrombosed vessels? ✔Correct Answer-3rd Degree
What is the Rule of 10s burn fluid resuscitation equation? Ensure you can apply it. ✔Correct
Answer-Rule of 10s (10mL/hr x %TBSA) - Expect to be given a scenario and you have to be able
to answer the initial fluid amount. For patients weighing more than 80 kg, add 100mL/hr to IV
fluid rate for each 10kg> 80kg.
For children suffering burn injuries, ____x Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) x body weight in kg
gives the volume for the first 24hrs of fluid resuscitation. ✔Correct Answer-3
T/F A hypotonic solution is the preferred resuscitation fluid for a burn patient. ✔Correct
Answer-False - Lactated Ringer's (LR) PlasmaLyte A (Baxter International, Deerfield, II) or other
isotonic solution is the preferred resuscitation fluid.
T/F Both under- and over- fluid resuscitation of burn patients can result in serious morbidity and
even mortality; patients who receive over 250mL/kg in the first 24 hours are at increased risk
for severe complications including acute respiratory distress syndrome and both abdominal and
extremity compartment syndromes. ✔Correct Answer-True
At 8-12 hours post-burn, if the hourly IV fluid rate exceeds 1500mL/hr or if the projected 24 hr
total fluid volume approaches 250 mL/kg, initiate 5% ____ infusion for an adult burn patient.
✔Correct Answer-Albumin (A protein that will help keep fluid in the vascular space)
What are the clinical signs of inhalation injury? ✔Correct Answer-progressive voice changes,
soot about the mouth and nares, hypoxia, and shortness of breath
Verified Answers |Latest Version |Already Graded
A+ (Just Released)
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior
(AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) ✔Correct Answer-
Portable x-ray machine
T/F Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic
evaluation (CRSE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. ✔Correct Answer-
FALSE - CT replaced CRSE. Only do CSRE in absence of CT.
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? ✔Correct Answer-
Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have ____ aprons and thyroid shields available near the
trauma bay for radiation safety ✔Correct Answer-LEAD
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? ✔Correct
Answer-Role 3
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition,
any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-ray unit.
The recommended minimal distance is ____. ✔Correct Answer-6 feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma
patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in
most trauma patients. FAST stands for ✔Correct Answer-Focused Abdominal Sonographic
Assessment for Trauma
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of ✔Correct Answer-98%
T/F The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric
injury. ✔Correct Answer-FALSE - Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage is 100% sensitive
T/F At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and emergency
physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency department on a hand held
portable device. ✔Correct Answer-True
,The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of ____ in certain
areas of the body. ✔Correct Answer-Free Intraperitoneal Fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You
are inspecting between which two organs? ✔Correct Answer-Liver and Kidney (Know your
anatomy/ their right is not your right)
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are
inspecting between which two organs? ✔Correct Answer-Spleen and Kidney
An 18g ____ IV is typically desires for Computed Tomography IV access. ✔Correct Answer-
Antecubital (AC)
T/F The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid organ
enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. ✔Correct Answer-True
T/F When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a scanning
protocol based on the adult settlings to include the doses of and rates of contrast
administration. ✔Correct Answer-False (MWD are the size/eight of a 7-10 year old kid, use
pediatric doses)
T/F All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent electronically
ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a backup. ✔Correct
Answer-True
T/F Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation Enduring
Freedom. ✔Correct Answer-False (Don't use magnetic when people are full of metal...)
All trauma patients arriving at a Role _____ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic
screening of injuries. ✔Correct Answer-Role 3
T/F Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at rise for aural trauma. ✔Correct Answer-
False
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: ✔Correct Answer-Hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the
ear), aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise), difficulty localizing sounds, difficulty
hearing in a noisy background, and vertigo.
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either ____ or ____.
✔Correct Answer-Temporary or permanent threshold shift
The ear, specifically the ____, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury. ✔Correct
Answer-Tympanic Membrane
,T/F The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of
spontaneous closure. ✔Correct Answer-True
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the
first ____ after injury. ✔Correct Answer-8 weeks
Acute management of infratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective documentation of
facial movement using the ____ scale. ✔Correct Answer-House-Brackmann Scale
T/F For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be
provided regardless of contraindications. ✔Correct Answer-False (Don't ignore
contraindications)
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? ✔Correct Answer-benign paroxysmal
positional vertigo (BPPV), damage to sensitive neuroepithelial rests within the inner ear,
perilymphatic fistula, infection of the inner ear or vestibular nerve.
All service members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute tinnitus,
muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should: ✔Correct Answer-educated and directed to self-
report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in the
middle ear? ✔Correct Answer-treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid-containing
topical antibiotic - do not flush
Hearing loss that persists ____ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or
audiogram. ✔Correct Answer-72 hours
T/F Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo ✔Correct Answer-True
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should:
✔Correct Answer-have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing
as soon as possible
Patients with TTS greater than ____ losses in three consecutive frequencies should be
considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when not
otherwise contraindicated. ✔Correct Answer-25 dB
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? ✔Correct
Answer-comatose patient, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns over 40%
Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)
, Burn casualties with injuries greater than ____ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk of
hypothermia. ✔Correct Answer-20%
T/F When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride blisters
and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or wet clean sheet. ✔Correct Answer-False
(cover, but do not debride until at a surgical facility)
Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of ____. ✔Correct Answer-Nines
Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for
fluid resuscitation? ✔Correct Answer-First Degree
Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? ✔Correct Answer-
Second Degree
Which classification of burns appear red, do not blister, and blanch readily? ✔Correct Answer-
1st Degree
Which classification of burns appear leathery, dry, non-blanching, are insensate, and often
contain thrombosed vessels? ✔Correct Answer-3rd Degree
What is the Rule of 10s burn fluid resuscitation equation? Ensure you can apply it. ✔Correct
Answer-Rule of 10s (10mL/hr x %TBSA) - Expect to be given a scenario and you have to be able
to answer the initial fluid amount. For patients weighing more than 80 kg, add 100mL/hr to IV
fluid rate for each 10kg> 80kg.
For children suffering burn injuries, ____x Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) x body weight in kg
gives the volume for the first 24hrs of fluid resuscitation. ✔Correct Answer-3
T/F A hypotonic solution is the preferred resuscitation fluid for a burn patient. ✔Correct
Answer-False - Lactated Ringer's (LR) PlasmaLyte A (Baxter International, Deerfield, II) or other
isotonic solution is the preferred resuscitation fluid.
T/F Both under- and over- fluid resuscitation of burn patients can result in serious morbidity and
even mortality; patients who receive over 250mL/kg in the first 24 hours are at increased risk
for severe complications including acute respiratory distress syndrome and both abdominal and
extremity compartment syndromes. ✔Correct Answer-True
At 8-12 hours post-burn, if the hourly IV fluid rate exceeds 1500mL/hr or if the projected 24 hr
total fluid volume approaches 250 mL/kg, initiate 5% ____ infusion for an adult burn patient.
✔Correct Answer-Albumin (A protein that will help keep fluid in the vascular space)
What are the clinical signs of inhalation injury? ✔Correct Answer-progressive voice changes,
soot about the mouth and nares, hypoxia, and shortness of breath
