EFMB Written Test FY23 with all Correct & 100% Verified
Answers |Actual Complete Exam |Already Graded A+
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior- Posterior
(AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n)
_______________________ ✔Correct Answer-Portable x-ray machine.
True/False: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine
radiographic evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable
✔Correct Answer-False, CT is superior to radiographic CSRE
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? ✔Correct
Answer-Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? ✔Correct Answer-
Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have ___________ aprons and thyroid shields available
near the trauma bay for radiation safety. ✔Correct Answer-lead
True/False: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. ✔Correct
Answer-False, hazardous noise = acoustic trauma
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are ✔Correct Answer-Hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the
ear), aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise), difficulty localizing sounds, difficulty
hearing in a noisy background, and vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either ✔Correct
Answer-temporary or permanent
The ear, specifically the , is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury. ✔Correct Answer-
tympanic membrane
True/False: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the
likelihood is of spontaneous closure. ✔Correct Answer-True
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? ✔Correct
Answer->40% TBSA due to swelling, comatose, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns
Burn casualties with injuries greater than _____ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk
of hypothermia ✔Correct Answer-20%
,True/False: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately
debride blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet ✔Correct
Answer-False, Do not debride blisters until the patient has reached a facility with surgical
capability
Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of ✔Correct Answer-9s,
head, arms = 9%, 9%, 9%
Torso = 36%
Legs = 18%, 18%
Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for
fluid resuscitation? ✔Correct Answer-First degree or superficial burns
True/False: In addition to providing immediate care to preserve life, limb, or eye sight when
veterinary personnel are not available, human healthcare providers are also responsible for
providing routine medical, dental, or surgical care to Military Working Dogs in combat or
austere areas of operation ✔Correct Answer-False, not routine care
The is the best person to control the Military Working Dog; they have the most accurate
information about past medical problems and the current situation, and they have first aid
training and can assist in care ✔Correct Answer-dog handler
________ is the normal temperature (rectal) range for a Military Working Dog at rest.
✔Correct Answer-101-103
______ is the heart/pulse rate range for a Military Working Dog at rest ✔Correct Answer-60-
80
True/False: The normal blood pressure for a Military Working Dog at rest is systolic 120
mmHg/diastolic 80 mmHg ✔Correct Answer-True
How long can whole blood collected in the anticoagulant CPD be stored? ✔Correct Answer-21
days, 35 days if in CPDA-1
How long can whole blood collected in the anticoagulant CPDA-1 be stored? ✔Correct
Answer-35 days
1. If stored at room temperature, fresh whole blood must be destroyed if not used within what
time period? ✔Correct Answer-24 hours
True/False: 1. The most important safety consideration in transfusing whole blood is that donor
red blood cells be compatible with the recipient to avoid acute hemolytic transfusion reactions.
✔Correct Answer-True
,1. How often SHOULD titer and transfusion transmitted disease retesting be conducted?
✔Correct Answer-90 days
True/False: Infection Prevention in Combat-related Injuries standard precautions apply to all
patients, regardless of suspected or confirmed infectious status. ✔Correct Answer-True
The World Health Organization's "five moments of hand hygiene" include ✔Correct Answer-1.
Use of soap/water or alcohol sanitizer before contact.
2. Before aseptic tasks.
3. After bodily fluids exposure risk.
4. After patient contact.
5. After contact with patient surrounds even if gloved
What are Infection Prevention in Combat-related Injuries standard precautions? ✔Correct
Answer-Hand washing,
gloves,
gowns,
masks,
goggles
or face shield
True/False: When implementing infection prevention measures in a combat zone, cohorting is
the process of clustering host nation patients (who are not eligible to evacuate from theater)
and U.S. and coalition patients (who are eligible for evacuation from theater) and separate
when possible to reduce the risk of cross-contamination with multi-drug resistant organisms
✔Correct Answer-True
________ and ________ should be worn with all patients suspected or known to have multi-
drug resistant organism colonization or infection with C. difficile- infection (CDI). ✔Correct
Answer-gloves, gowns
What substance is NOT a highly water soluble irritant? ✔Correct Answer-oxides of nitrogen
and phosgene (highly = acrolein, sulfur dioxide, hydrogen chloride, and ammonia)
Treatment for chlorine inhalation includes ✔Correct Answer-Skin decontamination,
supplemental oxygen as necessary, beta agonists and ARDS ventilatory techniques
Which chemical irritant has a sweet, pleasant smell of mown hay? ✔Correct Answer-
Phosgene
Which chemical irritant may produce a severe cough with laryngospasm when exposed to high
concentrations? ✔Correct Answer-Phosgene
Which chemical irritant smells like rotten eggs? ✔Correct Answer-Hydrogen Sulfide
, Deglycerolized Red Blood Cells are derived from _____ ml of whole blood collected
inCitrate/Phosphate/DextroseorCitrate/Phosphate/Dextrose/Adeninecollectionbags ✔Correct
Answer-450-500
Red Blood Cells are stored for up to 6 days at 1 - 6 °C before being frozen in a cryoprotectant
(40% w/v glycerol), and stored in the frozen state at minus 65 °C or colder for up to ✔Correct
Answer-10 years
True/False: Each unit of deglycerolized red blood cells (DRBCs) should be considered equivalent
to a fresh unit of RBCs since they are frozen within 6 days of collection and have a 14-day shelf-
life upon deglycerolization ✔Correct Answer-True
What are the clinical indications for use of each unit of deglycerolized red blood cells (DRBCs)?
✔Correct Answer-to supplement liquid RBCs during surge periods of increased transfusion
requirments
How long does it take to thaw frozen red blood cells in a plasma thawer? ✔Correct Answer-35
minutes
How long does it take to thaw frozen red blood cells in a 42°C water bath? ✔Correct Answer-
45 minutes
Optimal but not necessarily definitive patient stabilization before transport is critical and
encompasses four connected elements. What are these elements? ✔Correct Answer-Injuries
must be controlled, resuscitation must be optimized and ongoing, treatments other than
resuscitation should be at steady state, deterioration requiring intervention en route must be
anticipated and risks mitigated prior to departure
True/False: Medical capability is the quality or state of being able to provide the expected and
required medical services and support to the casualty ✔Correct Answer-True
___________ transport is required when "the patient has a critical illness or injury that acutely
impairs one or more vital organ systems such that there is a high probability of imminent or life-
threatening deterioration in the patient's condition during transport." ✔Correct Answer-
Critical Care
The gold standard for unstable patient transport is movement with critical care capability led by
a ____________ who is qualified, experienced, and proficient at critical care transport.
✔Correct Answer-physician
True/False: Intermediate en route care should be initiated for a patient that does not require
critical care but is in need of a dedicated medical attendant with at least the knowledge and
Answers |Actual Complete Exam |Already Graded A+
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior- Posterior
(AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n)
_______________________ ✔Correct Answer-Portable x-ray machine.
True/False: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine
radiographic evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable
✔Correct Answer-False, CT is superior to radiographic CSRE
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? ✔Correct
Answer-Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? ✔Correct Answer-
Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have ___________ aprons and thyroid shields available
near the trauma bay for radiation safety. ✔Correct Answer-lead
True/False: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. ✔Correct
Answer-False, hazardous noise = acoustic trauma
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are ✔Correct Answer-Hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the
ear), aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise), difficulty localizing sounds, difficulty
hearing in a noisy background, and vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either ✔Correct
Answer-temporary or permanent
The ear, specifically the , is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury. ✔Correct Answer-
tympanic membrane
True/False: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the
likelihood is of spontaneous closure. ✔Correct Answer-True
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? ✔Correct
Answer->40% TBSA due to swelling, comatose, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns
Burn casualties with injuries greater than _____ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk
of hypothermia ✔Correct Answer-20%
,True/False: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately
debride blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet ✔Correct
Answer-False, Do not debride blisters until the patient has reached a facility with surgical
capability
Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of ✔Correct Answer-9s,
head, arms = 9%, 9%, 9%
Torso = 36%
Legs = 18%, 18%
Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for
fluid resuscitation? ✔Correct Answer-First degree or superficial burns
True/False: In addition to providing immediate care to preserve life, limb, or eye sight when
veterinary personnel are not available, human healthcare providers are also responsible for
providing routine medical, dental, or surgical care to Military Working Dogs in combat or
austere areas of operation ✔Correct Answer-False, not routine care
The is the best person to control the Military Working Dog; they have the most accurate
information about past medical problems and the current situation, and they have first aid
training and can assist in care ✔Correct Answer-dog handler
________ is the normal temperature (rectal) range for a Military Working Dog at rest.
✔Correct Answer-101-103
______ is the heart/pulse rate range for a Military Working Dog at rest ✔Correct Answer-60-
80
True/False: The normal blood pressure for a Military Working Dog at rest is systolic 120
mmHg/diastolic 80 mmHg ✔Correct Answer-True
How long can whole blood collected in the anticoagulant CPD be stored? ✔Correct Answer-21
days, 35 days if in CPDA-1
How long can whole blood collected in the anticoagulant CPDA-1 be stored? ✔Correct
Answer-35 days
1. If stored at room temperature, fresh whole blood must be destroyed if not used within what
time period? ✔Correct Answer-24 hours
True/False: 1. The most important safety consideration in transfusing whole blood is that donor
red blood cells be compatible with the recipient to avoid acute hemolytic transfusion reactions.
✔Correct Answer-True
,1. How often SHOULD titer and transfusion transmitted disease retesting be conducted?
✔Correct Answer-90 days
True/False: Infection Prevention in Combat-related Injuries standard precautions apply to all
patients, regardless of suspected or confirmed infectious status. ✔Correct Answer-True
The World Health Organization's "five moments of hand hygiene" include ✔Correct Answer-1.
Use of soap/water or alcohol sanitizer before contact.
2. Before aseptic tasks.
3. After bodily fluids exposure risk.
4. After patient contact.
5. After contact with patient surrounds even if gloved
What are Infection Prevention in Combat-related Injuries standard precautions? ✔Correct
Answer-Hand washing,
gloves,
gowns,
masks,
goggles
or face shield
True/False: When implementing infection prevention measures in a combat zone, cohorting is
the process of clustering host nation patients (who are not eligible to evacuate from theater)
and U.S. and coalition patients (who are eligible for evacuation from theater) and separate
when possible to reduce the risk of cross-contamination with multi-drug resistant organisms
✔Correct Answer-True
________ and ________ should be worn with all patients suspected or known to have multi-
drug resistant organism colonization or infection with C. difficile- infection (CDI). ✔Correct
Answer-gloves, gowns
What substance is NOT a highly water soluble irritant? ✔Correct Answer-oxides of nitrogen
and phosgene (highly = acrolein, sulfur dioxide, hydrogen chloride, and ammonia)
Treatment for chlorine inhalation includes ✔Correct Answer-Skin decontamination,
supplemental oxygen as necessary, beta agonists and ARDS ventilatory techniques
Which chemical irritant has a sweet, pleasant smell of mown hay? ✔Correct Answer-
Phosgene
Which chemical irritant may produce a severe cough with laryngospasm when exposed to high
concentrations? ✔Correct Answer-Phosgene
Which chemical irritant smells like rotten eggs? ✔Correct Answer-Hydrogen Sulfide
, Deglycerolized Red Blood Cells are derived from _____ ml of whole blood collected
inCitrate/Phosphate/DextroseorCitrate/Phosphate/Dextrose/Adeninecollectionbags ✔Correct
Answer-450-500
Red Blood Cells are stored for up to 6 days at 1 - 6 °C before being frozen in a cryoprotectant
(40% w/v glycerol), and stored in the frozen state at minus 65 °C or colder for up to ✔Correct
Answer-10 years
True/False: Each unit of deglycerolized red blood cells (DRBCs) should be considered equivalent
to a fresh unit of RBCs since they are frozen within 6 days of collection and have a 14-day shelf-
life upon deglycerolization ✔Correct Answer-True
What are the clinical indications for use of each unit of deglycerolized red blood cells (DRBCs)?
✔Correct Answer-to supplement liquid RBCs during surge periods of increased transfusion
requirments
How long does it take to thaw frozen red blood cells in a plasma thawer? ✔Correct Answer-35
minutes
How long does it take to thaw frozen red blood cells in a 42°C water bath? ✔Correct Answer-
45 minutes
Optimal but not necessarily definitive patient stabilization before transport is critical and
encompasses four connected elements. What are these elements? ✔Correct Answer-Injuries
must be controlled, resuscitation must be optimized and ongoing, treatments other than
resuscitation should be at steady state, deterioration requiring intervention en route must be
anticipated and risks mitigated prior to departure
True/False: Medical capability is the quality or state of being able to provide the expected and
required medical services and support to the casualty ✔Correct Answer-True
___________ transport is required when "the patient has a critical illness or injury that acutely
impairs one or more vital organ systems such that there is a high probability of imminent or life-
threatening deterioration in the patient's condition during transport." ✔Correct Answer-
Critical Care
The gold standard for unstable patient transport is movement with critical care capability led by
a ____________ who is qualified, experienced, and proficient at critical care transport.
✔Correct Answer-physician
True/False: Intermediate en route care should be initiated for a patient that does not require
critical care but is in need of a dedicated medical attendant with at least the knowledge and
