SNHD Paramedic Protocol Exam 2026/2027 |
Southern Nevada Health District | Verified
Questions & Answers with Rationales | Multiple
Choice & Open-Ended Q&A | Grade A+
Exam Structure:
Subject: Paramedic Protocol (SNHD - Southern Nevada Health District)
Source: SNHD Paramedic Protocol Exam – Verified Answers
Format: Multiple Choice & Open-Ended Q&A
1. What is the definition of a patient?
Correct Answer: A person who has a complaint or mechanism suggestive
of potential illness or injury; a person who has obvious evidence of illness
or injury; or a person identified by an informed 2nd or 3rd party caller as
requiring evaluation for potential illness or injury.
Rationale:
1. The definition includes both subjective complaints and objective evidence.
2. Mechanism of injury (MOI) alone can qualify a person as a patient.
3. Third-party callers (family, bystanders) can initiate patient status.
4. This broad definition ensures that no potentially ill or injured person is
overlooked.
2. What are the characteristics of a mild allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: Involve skin rashes, itchy sensation, or hives with no
respiratory involvement.
Rationale:
1. Mild reactions are limited to the skin (urticaria, pruritus, erythema).
2. No respiratory symptoms (wheezing, stridor, dyspnea).
, 2|Page
3. No hypotension or cardiovascular compromise.
4. May still progress to moderate/severe; monitor closely.
3. What are the characteristics of a moderate allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: Involve skin disorders and may include some respiratory
involvement like wheezing, yet the patient still maintains good tidal volume
air exchange.
Rationale:
1. Moderate reactions include skin findings plus mild respiratory symptoms.
2. Wheezing indicates bronchospasm but tidal volume is still adequate.
3. No hypotension (distinguishes from severe).
4. Requires prompt treatment to prevent progression.
4. What are the characteristics of a severe allergic reaction
(anaphylaxis)?
Correct Answer: Involve skin disorders, respiratory difficulty, and may
include hypotension.
Rationale:
1. Severe reactions involve two or more organ systems (skin, respiratory,
cardiovascular).
2. Hypotension indicates distributive shock.
3. Respiratory difficulty may include stridor (upper airway) or wheezing
(lower airway).
4. This is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate epinephrine.
5. When can you give oral glucose?
Correct Answer: Only if the patient can protect their own airway and
blood glucose is less than 60 mg/dL.
Rationale:
1. Oral glucose requires an intact gag reflex and ability to swallow.
2. Unconscious or seizing patients cannot protect their airway (risk of
aspiration).
3. Blood glucose <60 mg/dL defines hypoglycemia requiring treatment.
4. If airway is compromised, use IV dextrose or glucagon instead.
, 3|Page
6. What does the SAFER acronym stand for?
Correct Answer: Stabilize, Assess, Facilitate, Encourage, Recovery or
Referral.
Rationale:
1. Stabilize the situation by containing and lowering stimuli.
2. Assess and acknowledge the crisis.
3. Facilitate identification and activation of resources (chaplain, family,
police).
4. Encourage patient to use resources and act in their best interest.
5. Recovery or referral – leave with responsible person or transport.
7. When do you contact law enforcement in a behavioral emergency?
Correct Answer: All calls involving potentially violent patients.
Rationale:
1. Safety of EMS providers is the priority.
2. Potentially violent patients include those with weapons, agitation, or
history of violence.
3. Law enforcement secures the scene before EMS entry.
4. Do not enter unsafe scenes; wait for police clearance.
8. What are the burn centers in Las Vegas?
Correct Answer: UMC (University Medical Center) and Sunrise Hospital.
Rationale:
1. UMC is the only Level I trauma center in Southern Nevada with a dedicated
burn unit.
2. Sunrise Hospital also has burn capabilities.
3. Major burns should be transported to a burn center per protocol.
4. Criteria include partial/full thickness burns >10% TBSA,
face/hands/genitals, inhalation injury, circumferential burns.
9. What is the compression depth for CPR in adults?
Correct Answer: At least 2 inches (5 cm).
Rationale:
1. AHA guidelines recommend compression depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm)
for adults.
2. Depth should not exceed 2.4 inches (6 cm).
, 4|Page
3. Allow full chest recoil between compressions.
4. Rate: 100-120 compressions per minute.
10. How should an EMT administer aspirin?
Correct Answer: Chewable tablets at a dose of 324 mg.
Rationale:
1. Chewable aspirin is absorbed faster than swallowed tablets.
2. Standard dose is 324 mg (four 81 mg baby aspirin or one 325 mg adult
aspirin).
3. Indicated for suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS).
4. Contraindicated if allergy, active bleeding, or recent stroke.
11. How should an EMT administer nitroglycerin?
Correct Answer: Assist with patient up to 3 doses, no erectile dysfunction
meds within 48 hours, and systolic BP at least 100 mmHg.
Rationale:
1. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can cause severe hypotension.
2. Contraindicated with phosphodiesterase inhibitors (sildenafil, tadalafil,
vardenafil) within 24-48 hours.
3. Hold if systolic BP <100 mmHg.
4. Maximum of 3 doses (0.4 mg sublingual every 3-5 minutes).
12. What are the childbirth positions and special considerations?
Correct Answer: Left lateral recumbent (lumbar position); Breech
(support body of baby during delivery of head); Cord presentation (lift baby
off the cord).
Rationale:
1. Left lateral position prevents supine hypotension syndrome (aortocaval
compression).
2. Breech delivery: support the body; do not pull; allow head to deliver
spontaneously.
3. Cord presentation: lift baby off the cord to prevent compression;
transport immediately for C-section.
4. Do not attempt to push cord back into uterus.
13. What does APGAR stand for and what are the scores?
Correct Answer: