PROPHECY RELIAS PHARMACOLOGY RN EXAM NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT/NEWEST UPDATE!!!
Question 1
Which of the following medications is classified as a leukotriene receptor antagonist used in the
management of asthma?
A) Albuterol
B) Ipratropium
C) Montelukast
D) Fluticasone
E) Salmeterol
Correct Answer: C) Montelukast
Rationale: Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist. It works by
blocking leukotrienes, which are chemicals the body releases when an allergen is inhaled,
causing swelling in the lungs and tightening of the muscles around the airways. Albuterol is
a short-acting beta-agonist, while Fluticasone is a corticosteroid.
Question 2
A nurse is providing discharge education to a patient prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ).
Which of the following statements by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the
medication?
A) "I should take this medication right before I go to bed."
B) "I should expect my heart rate to decrease significantly."
C) "I should take extra care when standing up or changing positions."
D) "I will need to stop eating bananas and oranges while on this drug."
E) "This medication will help my body retain more sodium."
Correct Answer: C) "I should take extra care when standing up or changing positions."
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can cause orthostatic hypotension
(a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing). Patients should be taught to change
positions slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. It should be taken in the morning to avoid
nocturia, and it typically causes potassium loss rather than retention.
Question 3
A physician orders a 250 mg dose of an oral medication. The medication is supplied in 100 mg
scored tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
A) 1 tablet
B) 1.5 tablets
C) 2 tablets
D) 2.5 tablets
E) 3 tablets
Correct Answer: D) 2.5 tablets
Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets: Desired Dose (250 mg) divided by the Dose on
Hand (100 mg) equals the quantity to give. = 2.5 tablets.
, 2
Question 4
Which of the following medications is considered a potassium-sparing diuretic?
A) Furosemide
B) Spironolactone
C) Bumetanide
D) Chlorthalidone
E) Torsemide
Correct Answer: B) Spironolactone
Rationale: Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts on the distal
tubules to promote sodium and water excretion while retaining potassium. Furosemide and
Bumetanide are loop diuretics that typically cause significant potassium depletion.
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a patient receiving a rapid IV infusion of vancomycin. The patient’s face and
neck become bright red, and they report intense itching. Which condition should the nurse
suspect?
A) Anaphylactic shock
B) Steven-Johnson Syndrome
C) Red Man Syndrome
D) Extrapyramidal symptoms
E) Serotonin syndrome
Correct Answer: C) Red Man Syndrome
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is an infusion-related reaction to Vancomycin, typically
caused by a rapid administration rate. It results from a non-immune mediated release of
histamine. To prevent or treat it, the infusion rate should be slowed to at least over 60
minutes.
Question 6
A nurse is reviewing a patient's history prior to administering sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the
following medications, if noted in the patient's record, would require the nurse to question the
prescription?
A) Lisinopril
B) Metformin
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Atorvastatin
E) Warfarin
Correct Answer: C) Nitroglycerin
Rationale: The use of Sildenafil and Nitroglycerin (or any nitrate) concurrently is strictly
contraindicated. Both cause significant vasodilation; taking them together can lead to
profound, life-threatening hypotension.
, 3
Question 7
A patient has a capillary blood glucose level of 33 mg/dL and is unresponsive. Which of the
following should the nurse administer immediately?
A) 4 oz of orange juice
B) 10 units of Regular insulin
C) Dextrose 50% IV push
D) Metformin 500 mg PO
E) Glucagon 1 mg SubQ
Correct Answer: C) Dextrose 50% IV push
Rationale: For severe hypoglycemia (below 70 mg/dL, and especially as low as 33 mg/dL) in
a patient who is unable to tolerate oral intake or is unresponsive, IV Dextrose 50% (D50) is
the fastest way to raise blood glucose levels. Glucagon is used if IV access is not available.
Question 8
A physician writes an order: "Insulin glargine (Lantus), 10 U, subQ QD." How should the nurse
clarify this order to meet safety standards?
A) "Insulin glargine 10 Units subQ Daily"
B) "Insulin glargine 10 U subQ Every Night"
C) "Lantus 10 u subQ Q.D."
D) "Glargine 10 units subQ every morning"
E) "Insulin glargine 10 U subQ daily"
Correct Answer: A) "Insulin glargine 10 Units subQ Daily"
Rationale: To avoid medication errors, the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)
and the Joint Commission prohibit the abbreviations "U" (units) and "QD" (daily). "U"
can be mistaken for a zero, and "QD" can be mistaken for "QID." These must be spelled
out.
Question 9
A nurse is providing education to a patient starting warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the
patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I will use an electric razor for shaving."
B) "I will have my blood checked regularly for the INR level."
C) "If I get a headache, aspirin is my best option for pain."
D) "I will try to keep my intake of green leafy vegetables consistent."
E) "I should report any dark, tarry stools to my doctor."
Correct Answer: C) "If I get a headache, aspirin is my best option for pain."
Rationale: Patients on warfarin should avoid aspirin and other NSAIDs because they
increase the risk of bleeding. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is generally the preferred analgesic
for minor pain in patients on anticoagulants, although it should still be monitored.
COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT/NEWEST UPDATE!!!
Question 1
Which of the following medications is classified as a leukotriene receptor antagonist used in the
management of asthma?
A) Albuterol
B) Ipratropium
C) Montelukast
D) Fluticasone
E) Salmeterol
Correct Answer: C) Montelukast
Rationale: Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist. It works by
blocking leukotrienes, which are chemicals the body releases when an allergen is inhaled,
causing swelling in the lungs and tightening of the muscles around the airways. Albuterol is
a short-acting beta-agonist, while Fluticasone is a corticosteroid.
Question 2
A nurse is providing discharge education to a patient prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ).
Which of the following statements by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the
medication?
A) "I should take this medication right before I go to bed."
B) "I should expect my heart rate to decrease significantly."
C) "I should take extra care when standing up or changing positions."
D) "I will need to stop eating bananas and oranges while on this drug."
E) "This medication will help my body retain more sodium."
Correct Answer: C) "I should take extra care when standing up or changing positions."
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can cause orthostatic hypotension
(a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing). Patients should be taught to change
positions slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. It should be taken in the morning to avoid
nocturia, and it typically causes potassium loss rather than retention.
Question 3
A physician orders a 250 mg dose of an oral medication. The medication is supplied in 100 mg
scored tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
A) 1 tablet
B) 1.5 tablets
C) 2 tablets
D) 2.5 tablets
E) 3 tablets
Correct Answer: D) 2.5 tablets
Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets: Desired Dose (250 mg) divided by the Dose on
Hand (100 mg) equals the quantity to give. = 2.5 tablets.
, 2
Question 4
Which of the following medications is considered a potassium-sparing diuretic?
A) Furosemide
B) Spironolactone
C) Bumetanide
D) Chlorthalidone
E) Torsemide
Correct Answer: B) Spironolactone
Rationale: Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts on the distal
tubules to promote sodium and water excretion while retaining potassium. Furosemide and
Bumetanide are loop diuretics that typically cause significant potassium depletion.
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a patient receiving a rapid IV infusion of vancomycin. The patient’s face and
neck become bright red, and they report intense itching. Which condition should the nurse
suspect?
A) Anaphylactic shock
B) Steven-Johnson Syndrome
C) Red Man Syndrome
D) Extrapyramidal symptoms
E) Serotonin syndrome
Correct Answer: C) Red Man Syndrome
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is an infusion-related reaction to Vancomycin, typically
caused by a rapid administration rate. It results from a non-immune mediated release of
histamine. To prevent or treat it, the infusion rate should be slowed to at least over 60
minutes.
Question 6
A nurse is reviewing a patient's history prior to administering sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the
following medications, if noted in the patient's record, would require the nurse to question the
prescription?
A) Lisinopril
B) Metformin
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Atorvastatin
E) Warfarin
Correct Answer: C) Nitroglycerin
Rationale: The use of Sildenafil and Nitroglycerin (or any nitrate) concurrently is strictly
contraindicated. Both cause significant vasodilation; taking them together can lead to
profound, life-threatening hypotension.
, 3
Question 7
A patient has a capillary blood glucose level of 33 mg/dL and is unresponsive. Which of the
following should the nurse administer immediately?
A) 4 oz of orange juice
B) 10 units of Regular insulin
C) Dextrose 50% IV push
D) Metformin 500 mg PO
E) Glucagon 1 mg SubQ
Correct Answer: C) Dextrose 50% IV push
Rationale: For severe hypoglycemia (below 70 mg/dL, and especially as low as 33 mg/dL) in
a patient who is unable to tolerate oral intake or is unresponsive, IV Dextrose 50% (D50) is
the fastest way to raise blood glucose levels. Glucagon is used if IV access is not available.
Question 8
A physician writes an order: "Insulin glargine (Lantus), 10 U, subQ QD." How should the nurse
clarify this order to meet safety standards?
A) "Insulin glargine 10 Units subQ Daily"
B) "Insulin glargine 10 U subQ Every Night"
C) "Lantus 10 u subQ Q.D."
D) "Glargine 10 units subQ every morning"
E) "Insulin glargine 10 U subQ daily"
Correct Answer: A) "Insulin glargine 10 Units subQ Daily"
Rationale: To avoid medication errors, the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)
and the Joint Commission prohibit the abbreviations "U" (units) and "QD" (daily). "U"
can be mistaken for a zero, and "QD" can be mistaken for "QID." These must be spelled
out.
Question 9
A nurse is providing education to a patient starting warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the
patient indicates the need for further teaching?
A) "I will use an electric razor for shaving."
B) "I will have my blood checked regularly for the INR level."
C) "If I get a headache, aspirin is my best option for pain."
D) "I will try to keep my intake of green leafy vegetables consistent."
E) "I should report any dark, tarry stools to my doctor."
Correct Answer: C) "If I get a headache, aspirin is my best option for pain."
Rationale: Patients on warfarin should avoid aspirin and other NSAIDs because they
increase the risk of bleeding. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is generally the preferred analgesic
for minor pain in patients on anticoagulants, although it should still be monitored.
