NEW RPSGT EXAM ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
COMPLETE 400 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
1. A patient's oximeter reading during calibration is 88%. What is the appropriate response?
• A. Increase the sensor's sensitivity
• B. Continue with the calibration; this is acceptable
• C. Place the probe on the patient's earlobe
• D. Replace the pulse oximeter
2. The failure to remove electrode paste residue will MOST likely result in:
• A. Discarded electrodes
• B. Enhanced artifact
• C. Improved detergent selection
• D. Improvement in adherence
3. CO2 monitoring, using either end-tidal or transcutaneous sensors, is mandatory in children for the
scoring of:
• A. Apnea
• B. Hypopnea
• C. Central events
• D. Hypoventilation
4. What are the recommended impedance levels for EEG electrodes?
• A. Less than 20,000 ohms
• B. Less than 5 ohms
• C. Less than 5k ohms
• D. At least 20,000 ohms
,5. Adaptive servo-ventilation is an effective treatment for which disorder?
• A. Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
• B. Nocturnal asthma
• C. Hunter-Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern
• D. Congenital central hypoventilation syndrome
1. During an MSLT, how is sleep onset defined?
o Correct Answer: The first 30-second epoch in which there is more than 15 seconds of
cumulative sleep.
2. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines for scoring stage N1 in adults, which of the following
is required?
o Correct Answer: Low amplitude, 4-7 Hz EEG activity.
3. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines for scoring arousals in adults, which of the following
is the BEST statement?
o Correct Answer: The 10 seconds of sleep required prior to scoring an arousal may begin
in the preceding epoch, even if that epoch is scored as stage W.
4. A patient exhibits a run of 4% of the tracing. What is this?
o Correct Answer: The beginning of stage N1 sleep, as alpha activity drops out and is
replaced by low-amplitude, mixed-frequency EEG.
5. What is the minimum duration for scoring an obstructive apnea in an adult?
o Correct Answer: 10 seconds, associated with a ≥90% drop in the thermal sensor signal
and continued respiratory effort.
6. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines, a requirement for scoring obstructive apneas in
pediatric patients is...
o Correct Answer: Apnea criteria is met for the length of 2 breaths and is associated with
respiratory effort throughout this period.
7. What is the recommended definition for scoring a hypopnea in adults?
o Correct Answer: A ≥30% drop in the nasal pressure signal lasting ≥10 seconds,
associated with a ≥3% oxygen desaturation or an arousal.
8. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines, which is a required characteristic for scoring
rhythmic movement disorder?
o Correct Answer: The maximum frequency is 2.0 Hz.
, 9. What is the recommended AHI threshold for diagnosing mild OSA?
o Correct Answer: An AHI of ≥5 but <15 events per hour.
10. How are PLMs scored in relation to respiratory events?
o Correct Answer: PLMs are not scored if they occur during a period from 0.5 seconds
before an apnea/hypopnea to 0.5 seconds after it.
11. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines for scoring cardiac events in adults, which of the
following is the BEST statement?
o Correct Answer: Asystole is a cardiac pause for >3 seconds.
Part 2: PAP Therapy & Titration
12. What is the recommended minimum/maximum differential for IPAP and EPAP settings during
a BiPAP titration?
o Correct Answer: 4-10 cm H₂O apart, with at least 4 cm H₂O minimum.
13. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines, what is the minimum and maximum pressure
support for bilevel PAP?
o Correct Answer: 4 cm H₂O, 10 cm H₂O.
14. Adaptive servo-ventilation (ASV) is an effective treatment for which disorder?
o Correct Answer: Hunter-Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern (central apneas).
15. During a CPAP titration for a patient with OSA, at what pressure should the technologist
typically start?
o Correct Answer: 4 cm H₂O, with upward titration in 1 cm H₂O increments.
16. Average volume-assured pressure support (AVAPS) focuses on maintaining which aspect of
the respiratory process?
o Correct Answer: Tidal volume.
17. What is a common indication for switching from CPAP to BiPAP during a titration?
o Correct Answer: The patient is unable to tolerate high expiratory pressure or reports
significant aerophagia.
18. What is the primary purpose of a "backup rate" in BiPAP therapy?
o Correct Answer: To ensure a minimum respiratory rate in patients with central sleep
apnea or hypoventilation.
19. During a pediatric CPAP titration, how many hypopneas must occur prior to increasing
pressure?
o Correct Answer: One.
, 20. What is the primary function of a pressure relief feature (e.g., C-Flex, EPR) on a PAP device?
o Correct Answer: To temporarily reduce pressure at the beginning of exhalation,
improving patient comfort.
Part 3: Instrumentation & Signal Acquisition
21. What are the recommended impedance levels for EEG electrodes?
o Correct Answer: Less than 5k ohms.
22. What is a differential amplifier's primary function?
o Correct Answer: Recording the differences in the voltages of two inputs (G1 and G2)
while rejecting common signals.
23. The electrode located 30% above the left pre-auricular crease is:
o Correct Answer: C3.
24. Where are the reference electrodes M1 and M2 placed on the head?
o Correct Answer: On the earlobes or in the preauricular area behind the ear.
25. In a digital PSG system, what is the best method to improve the resolution of a signal?
o Correct Answer: Increase the sampling rate.
26. The 60-Hz notch filter is used to eliminate:
o Correct Answer: Electromagnetic interference from power lines.
27. An artifact resulting from salt bridges is most likely caused by:
o Correct Answer: Allowing tape or gauze from different electrode locations to make
contact, or prepping too large an area.
28. In an ECG, the P wave represents:
o Correct Answer: Atrial depolarization.
29. In an ECG, the QRS complex represents:
o Correct Answer: Ventricular depolarization.
30. In an ECG, the T wave represents:
o Correct Answer: Ventricular repolarization.
31. What is the Nyquist criterion for sampling rate?
o Correct Answer: The sampling rate should be at least twice the highest frequency
present in the signal to prevent aliasing.
Part 4: Patient Assessment & Care
COMPLETE 400 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
1. A patient's oximeter reading during calibration is 88%. What is the appropriate response?
• A. Increase the sensor's sensitivity
• B. Continue with the calibration; this is acceptable
• C. Place the probe on the patient's earlobe
• D. Replace the pulse oximeter
2. The failure to remove electrode paste residue will MOST likely result in:
• A. Discarded electrodes
• B. Enhanced artifact
• C. Improved detergent selection
• D. Improvement in adherence
3. CO2 monitoring, using either end-tidal or transcutaneous sensors, is mandatory in children for the
scoring of:
• A. Apnea
• B. Hypopnea
• C. Central events
• D. Hypoventilation
4. What are the recommended impedance levels for EEG electrodes?
• A. Less than 20,000 ohms
• B. Less than 5 ohms
• C. Less than 5k ohms
• D. At least 20,000 ohms
,5. Adaptive servo-ventilation is an effective treatment for which disorder?
• A. Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
• B. Nocturnal asthma
• C. Hunter-Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern
• D. Congenital central hypoventilation syndrome
1. During an MSLT, how is sleep onset defined?
o Correct Answer: The first 30-second epoch in which there is more than 15 seconds of
cumulative sleep.
2. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines for scoring stage N1 in adults, which of the following
is required?
o Correct Answer: Low amplitude, 4-7 Hz EEG activity.
3. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines for scoring arousals in adults, which of the following
is the BEST statement?
o Correct Answer: The 10 seconds of sleep required prior to scoring an arousal may begin
in the preceding epoch, even if that epoch is scored as stage W.
4. A patient exhibits a run of 4% of the tracing. What is this?
o Correct Answer: The beginning of stage N1 sleep, as alpha activity drops out and is
replaced by low-amplitude, mixed-frequency EEG.
5. What is the minimum duration for scoring an obstructive apnea in an adult?
o Correct Answer: 10 seconds, associated with a ≥90% drop in the thermal sensor signal
and continued respiratory effort.
6. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines, a requirement for scoring obstructive apneas in
pediatric patients is...
o Correct Answer: Apnea criteria is met for the length of 2 breaths and is associated with
respiratory effort throughout this period.
7. What is the recommended definition for scoring a hypopnea in adults?
o Correct Answer: A ≥30% drop in the nasal pressure signal lasting ≥10 seconds,
associated with a ≥3% oxygen desaturation or an arousal.
8. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines, which is a required characteristic for scoring
rhythmic movement disorder?
o Correct Answer: The maximum frequency is 2.0 Hz.
, 9. What is the recommended AHI threshold for diagnosing mild OSA?
o Correct Answer: An AHI of ≥5 but <15 events per hour.
10. How are PLMs scored in relation to respiratory events?
o Correct Answer: PLMs are not scored if they occur during a period from 0.5 seconds
before an apnea/hypopnea to 0.5 seconds after it.
11. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines for scoring cardiac events in adults, which of the
following is the BEST statement?
o Correct Answer: Asystole is a cardiac pause for >3 seconds.
Part 2: PAP Therapy & Titration
12. What is the recommended minimum/maximum differential for IPAP and EPAP settings during
a BiPAP titration?
o Correct Answer: 4-10 cm H₂O apart, with at least 4 cm H₂O minimum.
13. According to RECOMMENDED guidelines, what is the minimum and maximum pressure
support for bilevel PAP?
o Correct Answer: 4 cm H₂O, 10 cm H₂O.
14. Adaptive servo-ventilation (ASV) is an effective treatment for which disorder?
o Correct Answer: Hunter-Cheyne-Stokes breathing pattern (central apneas).
15. During a CPAP titration for a patient with OSA, at what pressure should the technologist
typically start?
o Correct Answer: 4 cm H₂O, with upward titration in 1 cm H₂O increments.
16. Average volume-assured pressure support (AVAPS) focuses on maintaining which aspect of
the respiratory process?
o Correct Answer: Tidal volume.
17. What is a common indication for switching from CPAP to BiPAP during a titration?
o Correct Answer: The patient is unable to tolerate high expiratory pressure or reports
significant aerophagia.
18. What is the primary purpose of a "backup rate" in BiPAP therapy?
o Correct Answer: To ensure a minimum respiratory rate in patients with central sleep
apnea or hypoventilation.
19. During a pediatric CPAP titration, how many hypopneas must occur prior to increasing
pressure?
o Correct Answer: One.
, 20. What is the primary function of a pressure relief feature (e.g., C-Flex, EPR) on a PAP device?
o Correct Answer: To temporarily reduce pressure at the beginning of exhalation,
improving patient comfort.
Part 3: Instrumentation & Signal Acquisition
21. What are the recommended impedance levels for EEG electrodes?
o Correct Answer: Less than 5k ohms.
22. What is a differential amplifier's primary function?
o Correct Answer: Recording the differences in the voltages of two inputs (G1 and G2)
while rejecting common signals.
23. The electrode located 30% above the left pre-auricular crease is:
o Correct Answer: C3.
24. Where are the reference electrodes M1 and M2 placed on the head?
o Correct Answer: On the earlobes or in the preauricular area behind the ear.
25. In a digital PSG system, what is the best method to improve the resolution of a signal?
o Correct Answer: Increase the sampling rate.
26. The 60-Hz notch filter is used to eliminate:
o Correct Answer: Electromagnetic interference from power lines.
27. An artifact resulting from salt bridges is most likely caused by:
o Correct Answer: Allowing tape or gauze from different electrode locations to make
contact, or prepping too large an area.
28. In an ECG, the P wave represents:
o Correct Answer: Atrial depolarization.
29. In an ECG, the QRS complex represents:
o Correct Answer: Ventricular depolarization.
30. In an ECG, the T wave represents:
o Correct Answer: Ventricular repolarization.
31. What is the Nyquist criterion for sampling rate?
o Correct Answer: The sampling rate should be at least twice the highest frequency
present in the signal to prevent aliasing.
Part 4: Patient Assessment & Care
