NSG 2600/ NSG 2610 ADULT HEALTH NURSING I & II 2026/2027
EACH EXAM CONTAINS COMPLETE ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
(100% CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) LATEST UPDATED
VERSIONS 2026 EDITION GUARANTEED PASS A+ (BRAND
NEW!) FULL REVISED EXAM
NSG 2600/NSG 2610 ADULT HEALTH NURSING I
1. A client is scheduled for a colon resection under general anesthesia. During the preoperative
assessment, the client reports taking warfarin daily for atrial fibrillation. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A) Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider
B) Instruct the client to stop taking warfarin immediately
C) Administer vitamin K as an antidote
D) Document the medication and proceed with surgery
CORRECT ANSWER: A
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk during surgery. The nurse must notify the surgeon and
anesthesia provider so they can determine the appropriate management (e.g., holding warfarin,
bridging with heparin). The nurse should never instruct the client to stop a prescribed medication
without a provider’s order.
2. A client who is 6 hours post‑operative after an abdominal hysterectomy reports pain rated 8 on a 0‑10
scale. The nurse administers morphine 4 mg IV push. Fifteen minutes later, the client’s respiratory rate is
8 breaths/minute. What is the priority action?
A) Administer naloxone
B) Increase oxygen to 6 L/min via nasal cannula
C) Stimulate the client to breathe deeply
D) Notify the provider
,CORRECT ANSWER: A
Rationale: Respiratory depression (rate <10) after opioid administration indicates potential opioid
overdose. Naloxone is the antidote and should be administered immediately. Oxygen and stimulation
may help but do not reverse the respiratory depression. Notifying the provider can occur after
administering naloxone.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which
electrocardiogram (ECG) change is most concerning?
A) Flattened T waves
B) Prominent U waves
C) Peaked T waves
D) Prolonged PR interval
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) typically causes peaked (tented) T waves, widened QRS,
and eventually sine wave pattern or cardiac arrest. Flattened T waves and U waves are seen in
hypokalemia. Prolonged PR interval can occur but is not the most characteristic early sign.
4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide 40 mg IV twice daily. Which assessment finding
indicates the medication is having the desired effect?
A) Crackles in lung bases
B) Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours
C) Jugular vein distension
D) Decreased dyspnea and clear breath sounds
CORRECT ANSWER: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload. Desired effects include
decreased dyspnea, resolution of crackles, clear breath sounds, weight loss, and reduced edema.
Crackles, weight gain, and JVD indicate worsening fluid overload.
,5. A client with a new colostomy is being discharged. Which statement indicates correct understanding
of stoma care?
A) “I will expect my stoma to be purple and dry.”
B) “I will change the pouch whenever it starts to leak.”
C) “I will clean the stoma with soap and water and pat it dry.”
D) “I will avoid eating foods that cause gas.”
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Rationale: The stoma should be pink, moist, and slightly edematous initially. It is cleaned with mild
soap and water and patted dry. Pouches should be changed every 3–7 days or when leaking, but
waiting for a leak increases skin breakdown risk. Gas-producing foods can be avoided but are not a
requirement for correct stoma care.
6. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse
implement first?
A) Administer antiemetic as ordered
B) Encourage clear liquids
C) Provide small, frequent meals
D) Remove strong odors from the room
CORRECT ANSWER: A
Rationale: Antiemetics should be given prophylactically and at the first sign of nausea to be most
effective. Environmental measures (odors, small meals) are adjunctive but not the priority first step
when nausea is present.
7. A client with a pressure injury on the sacrum has a wound bed that is pink, moist, and has granulation
tissue. Which stage is this wound?
A) Stage 1
, B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Unstageable
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure injury is partial‑thickness skin loss involving epidermis and/or dermis,
presenting as a pink or red, moist, open ulcer without slough or bruising. Granulation tissue may be
present. Stage 1 is intact skin with non‑blanchable redness. Stage 3 has full‑thickness loss with visible
fat.
8. A client with a terminal illness tells the nurse, “I don’t want any more treatment. I just want to die
peacefully.” Which response is most appropriate?
A) “You should talk to your family before making that decision.”
B) “I will notify your provider so we can discuss hospice care.”
C) “You have a lot to live for; don’t give up.”
D) “Let’s focus on pain control for now.”
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: Respecting the client’s autonomy, the nurse should facilitate advance care planning.
Notifying the provider to discuss hospice is appropriate. The nurse should not dismiss the client’s
wishes or pressure them to continue treatment.
9. A client is receiving a blood transfusion of packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes after the start, the
client reports low back pain and chills. Vital signs: BP 80/50 mm Hg, HR 120/min. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A) Slow the transfusion rate
B) Stop the transfusion and keep the IV line open with normal saline
C) Administer acetaminophen for chills
D) Notify the blood bank
EACH EXAM CONTAINS COMPLETE ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
(100% CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) LATEST UPDATED
VERSIONS 2026 EDITION GUARANTEED PASS A+ (BRAND
NEW!) FULL REVISED EXAM
NSG 2600/NSG 2610 ADULT HEALTH NURSING I
1. A client is scheduled for a colon resection under general anesthesia. During the preoperative
assessment, the client reports taking warfarin daily for atrial fibrillation. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A) Notify the surgeon and anesthesia provider
B) Instruct the client to stop taking warfarin immediately
C) Administer vitamin K as an antidote
D) Document the medication and proceed with surgery
CORRECT ANSWER: A
Rationale: Warfarin increases bleeding risk during surgery. The nurse must notify the surgeon and
anesthesia provider so they can determine the appropriate management (e.g., holding warfarin,
bridging with heparin). The nurse should never instruct the client to stop a prescribed medication
without a provider’s order.
2. A client who is 6 hours post‑operative after an abdominal hysterectomy reports pain rated 8 on a 0‑10
scale. The nurse administers morphine 4 mg IV push. Fifteen minutes later, the client’s respiratory rate is
8 breaths/minute. What is the priority action?
A) Administer naloxone
B) Increase oxygen to 6 L/min via nasal cannula
C) Stimulate the client to breathe deeply
D) Notify the provider
,CORRECT ANSWER: A
Rationale: Respiratory depression (rate <10) after opioid administration indicates potential opioid
overdose. Naloxone is the antidote and should be administered immediately. Oxygen and stimulation
may help but do not reverse the respiratory depression. Notifying the provider can occur after
administering naloxone.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which
electrocardiogram (ECG) change is most concerning?
A) Flattened T waves
B) Prominent U waves
C) Peaked T waves
D) Prolonged PR interval
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (high potassium) typically causes peaked (tented) T waves, widened QRS,
and eventually sine wave pattern or cardiac arrest. Flattened T waves and U waves are seen in
hypokalemia. Prolonged PR interval can occur but is not the most characteristic early sign.
4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide 40 mg IV twice daily. Which assessment finding
indicates the medication is having the desired effect?
A) Crackles in lung bases
B) Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours
C) Jugular vein distension
D) Decreased dyspnea and clear breath sounds
CORRECT ANSWER: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to reduce fluid overload. Desired effects include
decreased dyspnea, resolution of crackles, clear breath sounds, weight loss, and reduced edema.
Crackles, weight gain, and JVD indicate worsening fluid overload.
,5. A client with a new colostomy is being discharged. Which statement indicates correct understanding
of stoma care?
A) “I will expect my stoma to be purple and dry.”
B) “I will change the pouch whenever it starts to leak.”
C) “I will clean the stoma with soap and water and pat it dry.”
D) “I will avoid eating foods that cause gas.”
CORRECT ANSWER: C
Rationale: The stoma should be pink, moist, and slightly edematous initially. It is cleaned with mild
soap and water and patted dry. Pouches should be changed every 3–7 days or when leaking, but
waiting for a leak increases skin breakdown risk. Gas-producing foods can be avoided but are not a
requirement for correct stoma care.
6. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse
implement first?
A) Administer antiemetic as ordered
B) Encourage clear liquids
C) Provide small, frequent meals
D) Remove strong odors from the room
CORRECT ANSWER: A
Rationale: Antiemetics should be given prophylactically and at the first sign of nausea to be most
effective. Environmental measures (odors, small meals) are adjunctive but not the priority first step
when nausea is present.
7. A client with a pressure injury on the sacrum has a wound bed that is pink, moist, and has granulation
tissue. Which stage is this wound?
A) Stage 1
, B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Unstageable
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure injury is partial‑thickness skin loss involving epidermis and/or dermis,
presenting as a pink or red, moist, open ulcer without slough or bruising. Granulation tissue may be
present. Stage 1 is intact skin with non‑blanchable redness. Stage 3 has full‑thickness loss with visible
fat.
8. A client with a terminal illness tells the nurse, “I don’t want any more treatment. I just want to die
peacefully.” Which response is most appropriate?
A) “You should talk to your family before making that decision.”
B) “I will notify your provider so we can discuss hospice care.”
C) “You have a lot to live for; don’t give up.”
D) “Let’s focus on pain control for now.”
CORRECT ANSWER: B
Rationale: Respecting the client’s autonomy, the nurse should facilitate advance care planning.
Notifying the provider to discuss hospice is appropriate. The nurse should not dismiss the client’s
wishes or pressure them to continue treatment.
9. A client is receiving a blood transfusion of packed red blood cells. Fifteen minutes after the start, the
client reports low back pain and chills. Vital signs: BP 80/50 mm Hg, HR 120/min. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A) Slow the transfusion rate
B) Stop the transfusion and keep the IV line open with normal saline
C) Administer acetaminophen for chills
D) Notify the blood bank
