EFMB WT Study Guide 2026 with all Correct & 100%
Verified Answers |Latest Version |Already Graded A+
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior
(AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n)
_________________. ✔Correct Answer-Portable x-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic
evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. ✔Correct Answer-
False
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? ✔Correct
Answer-Role 3 and above
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? ✔Correct Answer-
Role 2 and Role 3 facilities
Members of the trauma team should have _____ aprons and thyroid shields available near the
trauma bay for radiation safety. ✔Correct Answer-Lead
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition,
any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-ray unit.
The recommended minimal distance is _____. ✔Correct Answer-6 feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma
patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in
most trauma patients. FAST stands for____________________. ✔Correct Answer-Focused
Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma (FAST) Examination
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of ___. ✔Correct Answer-
98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric
injury. ✔Correct Answer-False. Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and emergency
physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency department on a hand held
portable device. ✔Correct Answer-True
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly using a
standard 3-7 MHz curved array _______________ probe. ✔Correct Answer-Ultrasound (US)
,The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of ______________ in
certain areas of the body. ✔Correct Answer-Free intraperitoneal fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You
are inspecting between which two organs? ✔Correct Answer-Liver and kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are
inspecting between which two organs? ✔Correct Answer-Spleen and kidney
An 18g ______________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access.
✔Correct Answer-Antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid organ
enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. ✔Correct Answer-True
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a scanning
protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast
administration. ✔Correct Answer-False. Pediatric settings
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent electronically
ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a backup. ✔Correct
Answer-True
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation Enduring
Freedom. ✔Correct Answer-False
All trauma patients arriving at a Role ___ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic
screening of injuries. ✔Correct Answer-Role 3 hospital
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. ✔Correct Answer-
False. At risk for both acoustic trauma and subsequent Hearing Loss (HL)
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: ✔Correct Answer--Hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the
ear)
-Aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise)
-Difficulty localizing sounds
-Difficulty hearing in a noisy background
-Vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either _____________or
_____________. ✔Correct Answer-Temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or Permanent
(permanent threshold shift, PTS)
,The ear, specifically the _____________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury.
✔Correct Answer-Tympanic Membrane (TM)
T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of
spontaneous closure. ✔Correct Answer-True (TM perforations heal spontaneously in 80 to
94% of cases)
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the
first ___________ after injury. ✔Correct Answer-8 weeks
Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective documentation of
facial movement using the _____________ scale. ✔Correct Answer-House-Brackmann
grading scale
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be
provided regardless of contraindications. ✔Correct Answer-False. Provided if not
contraindicated
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? ✔Correct Answer--Benign paroxysmal
positional vertigo (BPPV), damage to sensitive neuroepithelial rests within the inner ear
-Perilymphatic fistula
-Otic capsule violating temporal bone fractures
-Secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular nerves
Trauma induced endolymphatic hydrops
-Activation of subclinical superior semicircular canal dehiscence.
All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute tinnitus,
muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should: ✔Correct Answer-Be educated and directed to
self-report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in the
middle ear? ✔Correct Answer-Treat w/ fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical
antibiotic (e.g., 4 drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin affected ear TID X 7 Days).
-Do NOT irrigate the ear as it may provoke pain and vertigo, move debris medially in the canal
and middle ear, and promote infection.
-Do NOT use any topical drops containing aminoglycosides (i.e. the neomycin in Cortisporin)
since these are ototoxic.
-Observe strict dry ear precautions and keep ALL water out of the EAC until the TM perforation
has healed or is repaired.
-Removal of debris should only be done by an ENT surgeon in order to avoid further injury to
the EAC or the middle ear.
Hearing loss that persists ___ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or audiogram.
✔Correct Answer-72 hours
, T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. ✔Correct Answer-True
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should:
✔Correct Answer-Have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing
ASAP.
Patients with TTS greater than ______ losses in three consecutive frequencies should be
considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when not
otherwise contraindicated. ✔Correct Answer-25 dB
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? ✔Correct
Answer-Indications for endotracheal intubation include a comatose patient, symptomatic
inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns over 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA).
Burn casualties with injuries greater than ___ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk of
hypothermia. ✔Correct Answer->20% TBSA
T/F: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride
blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. ✔Correct
Answer-False. In the field, INTERRUPT THE BURNING PROCESS and address any life threatening
bleeding, airway compromise, or tension pneumothorax as directed by Tactical Combat Casualty
Care guidelines
Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of _____. ✔Correct Answer-Nines
Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for
fluid resuscitation? ✔Correct Answer-Superficial (1st degree) burn
Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? ✔Correct Answer-
Partial thickness burns (2nd degree)
Which classification of burns appear red, do not blister, and blanch readily? ✔Correct Answer-
Superficial burns (1st degree)
Which classification of burns appear leathery, dry, non-blanching, are insensate, and often
contain thrombosed vessels? ✔Correct Answer-Full thickness burns (3rd degree)
What is the Rule of 10s burn fluid resuscitation equation? Ensure you can apply it. ✔Correct
Answer-Rule of 10s (10 mL/hr x %TBSA)
For children suffering burn injuries, ___ x Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) x body weight in kg
gives the volume for the first 24 hrs of fluid resuscitation. ✔Correct Answer-For children, 3 x
TBSA x body weight in kg gives the volume for the first 24 hrs
Verified Answers |Latest Version |Already Graded A+
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior
(AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n)
_________________. ✔Correct Answer-Portable x-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic
evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. ✔Correct Answer-
False
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? ✔Correct
Answer-Role 3 and above
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? ✔Correct Answer-
Role 2 and Role 3 facilities
Members of the trauma team should have _____ aprons and thyroid shields available near the
trauma bay for radiation safety. ✔Correct Answer-Lead
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition,
any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-ray unit.
The recommended minimal distance is _____. ✔Correct Answer-6 feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma
patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in
most trauma patients. FAST stands for____________________. ✔Correct Answer-Focused
Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma (FAST) Examination
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of ___. ✔Correct Answer-
98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric
injury. ✔Correct Answer-False. Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and emergency
physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency department on a hand held
portable device. ✔Correct Answer-True
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly using a
standard 3-7 MHz curved array _______________ probe. ✔Correct Answer-Ultrasound (US)
,The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of ______________ in
certain areas of the body. ✔Correct Answer-Free intraperitoneal fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You
are inspecting between which two organs? ✔Correct Answer-Liver and kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are
inspecting between which two organs? ✔Correct Answer-Spleen and kidney
An 18g ______________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access.
✔Correct Answer-Antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid organ
enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. ✔Correct Answer-True
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a scanning
protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast
administration. ✔Correct Answer-False. Pediatric settings
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent electronically
ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a backup. ✔Correct
Answer-True
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation Enduring
Freedom. ✔Correct Answer-False
All trauma patients arriving at a Role ___ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic
screening of injuries. ✔Correct Answer-Role 3 hospital
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. ✔Correct Answer-
False. At risk for both acoustic trauma and subsequent Hearing Loss (HL)
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: ✔Correct Answer--Hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the
ear)
-Aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise)
-Difficulty localizing sounds
-Difficulty hearing in a noisy background
-Vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either _____________or
_____________. ✔Correct Answer-Temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or Permanent
(permanent threshold shift, PTS)
,The ear, specifically the _____________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury.
✔Correct Answer-Tympanic Membrane (TM)
T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of
spontaneous closure. ✔Correct Answer-True (TM perforations heal spontaneously in 80 to
94% of cases)
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the
first ___________ after injury. ✔Correct Answer-8 weeks
Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective documentation of
facial movement using the _____________ scale. ✔Correct Answer-House-Brackmann
grading scale
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be
provided regardless of contraindications. ✔Correct Answer-False. Provided if not
contraindicated
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? ✔Correct Answer--Benign paroxysmal
positional vertigo (BPPV), damage to sensitive neuroepithelial rests within the inner ear
-Perilymphatic fistula
-Otic capsule violating temporal bone fractures
-Secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular nerves
Trauma induced endolymphatic hydrops
-Activation of subclinical superior semicircular canal dehiscence.
All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute tinnitus,
muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should: ✔Correct Answer-Be educated and directed to
self-report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in the
middle ear? ✔Correct Answer-Treat w/ fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical
antibiotic (e.g., 4 drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin affected ear TID X 7 Days).
-Do NOT irrigate the ear as it may provoke pain and vertigo, move debris medially in the canal
and middle ear, and promote infection.
-Do NOT use any topical drops containing aminoglycosides (i.e. the neomycin in Cortisporin)
since these are ototoxic.
-Observe strict dry ear precautions and keep ALL water out of the EAC until the TM perforation
has healed or is repaired.
-Removal of debris should only be done by an ENT surgeon in order to avoid further injury to
the EAC or the middle ear.
Hearing loss that persists ___ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or audiogram.
✔Correct Answer-72 hours
, T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. ✔Correct Answer-True
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should:
✔Correct Answer-Have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing
ASAP.
Patients with TTS greater than ______ losses in three consecutive frequencies should be
considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections when not
otherwise contraindicated. ✔Correct Answer-25 dB
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? ✔Correct
Answer-Indications for endotracheal intubation include a comatose patient, symptomatic
inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns over 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA).
Burn casualties with injuries greater than ___ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at high risk of
hypothermia. ✔Correct Answer->20% TBSA
T/F: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride
blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. ✔Correct
Answer-False. In the field, INTERRUPT THE BURNING PROCESS and address any life threatening
bleeding, airway compromise, or tension pneumothorax as directed by Tactical Combat Casualty
Care guidelines
Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of _____. ✔Correct Answer-Nines
Which type of burn is NOT included in the estimation of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) used for
fluid resuscitation? ✔Correct Answer-Superficial (1st degree) burn
Which classification of burns are moist and sensate, blister, and blanch? ✔Correct Answer-
Partial thickness burns (2nd degree)
Which classification of burns appear red, do not blister, and blanch readily? ✔Correct Answer-
Superficial burns (1st degree)
Which classification of burns appear leathery, dry, non-blanching, are insensate, and often
contain thrombosed vessels? ✔Correct Answer-Full thickness burns (3rd degree)
What is the Rule of 10s burn fluid resuscitation equation? Ensure you can apply it. ✔Correct
Answer-Rule of 10s (10 mL/hr x %TBSA)
For children suffering burn injuries, ___ x Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) x body weight in kg
gives the volume for the first 24 hrs of fluid resuscitation. ✔Correct Answer-For children, 3 x
TBSA x body weight in kg gives the volume for the first 24 hrs
