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BIOL 252 | BIOL252 Module 2: Human Anatomy & Physiology II with Lab Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale - Portage Learning

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BIOL 252 | BIOL252 Module 2: Human Anatomy & Physiology II with Lab Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale - Portage Learning

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BIOL 252 | BIOL252 Module 2: Human Anatomy &
Physiology II with Lab Updated and Latest
Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale -
Portage Learning
1. Which plasma protein is primarily responsible for maintaining the colloid osmotic pressure
of the blood?
A. Albumin

B. Fibrinogen

C. Globulin

D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Albumin is the most abundant protein found in blood plasma and is
produced by the liver. It plays a critical role in maintaining osmotic pressure which
prevents fluid from leaking out of blood vessels. While globulins participate in transport
and immunity, albumin focuses on fluid balance. Fibrinogen is involved in blood clotting
rather than osmotic regulation. Therefore, a decrease in albumin levels often results in
significant tissue edema.

2. Which structural feature of mature red blood cells (RBCs) is most significant for their role in
gas transport?
A. Biconcave disc shape

B. A large, multi-lobed nucleus

C. Presence of many mitochondria

D. Extensive rough endoplasmic reticulum

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Mature red blood cells lack a nucleus and mitochondria to maximize the
space available for hemoglobin. Their biconcave shape provides a high surface-area-to-
volume ratio which facilitates rapid gas exchange. This shape also allows the cells to flex
and deform as they pass through narrow capillaries. Because they lack mitochondria, they
do not consume the oxygen they are transporting. These structural adaptations are
essential for the primary function of oxygen delivery to tissues.

3. In the hemoglobin molecule, where exactly does oxygen bind?
A. The globin protein chain

B. The nitrogen atoms in the pyrrole rings

,C. The iron ion in the heme group

D. The plasma surrounding the cell
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Each hemoglobin molecule consists of four globin chains, each containing a
heme group. At the center of each heme group is an iron ion which serves as the specific
binding site for oxygen. One hemoglobin molecule can carry up to four oxygen molecules
simultaneously. Carbon dioxide, by contrast, binds to the amino acids of the globin chains
rather than the iron. This specific iron-oxygen interaction is what gives arterial blood its
bright red color.

4. Where does the process of hematopoiesis primarily occur in an adult human?
A. The red bone marrow

B. The liver and spleen

C. The yellow bone marrow

D. The circulating peripheral blood
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Hematopoiesis is the process by which all formed elements of the blood are
produced. In adults, this process occurs primarily in the red bone marrow found in the
axial skeleton and proximal epiphyses of long bones. Yellow bone marrow is mostly
adipose tissue and does not typically produce blood cells. While the liver and spleen are
hematopoietic sites during fetal development, they lose this function after birth. The red
bone marrow contains pluripotent stem cells that differentiate into various blood lineages.

5. Which hormone is released by the kidneys in response to low blood oxygen levels to
stimulate RBC production?
A. Thrombopoietin

B. Erythropoietin (EPO)

C. Calcitonin

D. Aldosterone

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Erythropoietin (EPO) is a glycoprotein hormone produced mainly by the
kidneys when oxygen levels are low. EPO travels through the blood to the red bone marrow
to stimulate the production of proerythroblasts. This negative feedback loop ensures that
the body maintains an adequate supply of oxygen-carrying cells. Thrombopoietin, on the
other hand, specifically stimulates the production of platelets. Without sufficient EPO, a
person will likely develop a form of anemia due to decreased red cell production.

, 6. Which type of white blood cell is typically the most numerous and acts as the first
responder to bacterial infection?
A. Neutrophils

B. Eosinophils

C. Basophils

D. Monocytes
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Neutrophils are the most common type of leukocyte, making up 50% to 70%
of the white blood cell count. They are granulocytes characterized by a multi-lobed nucleus
and are highly phagocytic. These cells are the first to migrate to a site of inflammation or
bacterial invasion. They utilize enzymes and oxidative bursts to destroy pathogens quickly.
An elevated neutrophil count, known as neutrophilia, is a common clinical indicator of an
acute bacterial infection.

7. Which leukocyte is responsible for specific immunity, including the production of
antibodies?
A. Monocytes

B. Lymphocytes

C. Neutrophils

D. Basophils

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Lymphocytes are agranulocytes that play a central role in the adaptive
immune system. B lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells that secrete specific
antibodies into the blood. T lymphocytes are involved in direct cellular attack against
infected or cancerous cells. Unlike neutrophils which provide general defense, lymphocytes
target specific antigens. They are the second most numerous type of white blood cell in the
circulation.

8. Which of the following describes the function of eosinophils?
A. Fighting parasitic infections and modulating allergic responses

B. Releasing histamine during allergic reactions

C. Transforming into macrophages in tissues

D. Transporting oxygen to the peripheral tissues
Correct Answer: A

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