PSYC 210 | PSYC210 Final Exam: Abnormal
Psychology Updated and Latest Questions and
Correct Answers with Rationale - Portage Learning
1. A 28-year-old female reports recurring episodes of intense fear, heart palpitations, and
shortness of breath that occur without warning. She now avoids taking the subway or going
to the grocery store because she fears she might have an attack and be unable to escape or
find help. Which diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Panic Disorder alone
B. Social Anxiety Disorder
C. Agoraphobia and Panic Disorder
D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: This patient meets criteria for Panic Disorder due to her recurrent
unexpected panic attacks. The secondary development of avoidance behavior in places like
subways and stores specifically indicates Agoraphobia. Differential diagnosis must rule out
Social Anxiety Disorder, where fear is based on social scrutiny rather than escape
difficulties. Evidence-based treatment typically includes Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
(CBT) and exposure to the feared environments. Clinical judgment suggests that the
patient’s impairment is significant due to the limitations placed on her daily mobility.
2. A patient presents with a history of one week of abnormally elevated mood, decreased
need for sleep (3 hours), pressured speech, and a recent $10,000 spending spree on
unnecessary luxury items. He has no history of depressive episodes. What is the most likely
DSM-5-TR diagnosis?
A. Major Depressive Disorder
B. Bipolar II Disorder
C. Cyclothymic Disorder
D. Bipolar I Disorder
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: The presence of a single manic episode lasting at least one week is
sufficient for a Bipolar I diagnosis. Bipolar II requires a hypomanic episode and a major
depressive episode, which is not present here. Cyclothymic disorder involves chronic mood
fluctuations but does not meet full manic criteria. Lithium or mood stabilizers are the first-
line evidence-based treatments for this condition. The clinician must prioritize risk
assessment regarding the patient’s financial stability and potential for impulsivity-driven
harm.
,3. Which of the following describes a negative symptom of Schizophrenia?
A. Auditory hallucinations
B. Avolition
C. Delusions of grandeur
D. Disorganized speech
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Negative symptoms refer to the absence or reduction of normal
functions, such as avolition or flat affect. Hallucinations and delusions are categorized as
positive symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functioning.
Disorganized speech is also a positive symptom reflecting thought disorder. Understanding
the distinction is vital for treatment planning, as typical antipsychotics often target positive
symptoms more effectively than negative ones. Long-term psychosocial rehabilitation is
often required to address the functional impairment caused by negative symptoms.
4. A 24-year-old man feels an overwhelming urge to check the locks on his front door exactly
12 times before leaving his house. He recognizes that this behavior is excessive but feels
intense anxiety if he does not complete the ritual. This scenario best illustrates:
A. A specific phobia
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
D. Borderline Personality Disorder
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is characterized by intrusive
thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) performed to alleviate
anxiety. In this case, the urge to check the locks is the compulsion driven by the fear of
being unsafe. The patient’s insight into the irrationality of the behavior is a common feature
of OCD. Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is the gold-standard evidence-based
psychological treatment for this disorder. Clinical assessment should determine the time-
consuming nature of these rituals and their impact on daily functioning.
5. A client exhibits a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image,
and affect, along with marked impulsivity and recurrent suicidal gestures. Which personality
disorder is most likely?
A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
B. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
C. Avoidant Personality Disorder
D. Borderline Personality Disorder
, Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Borderline Personality Disorder is defined by instability in moods,
self-image, and relationships, often including self-harm. Narcissistic PD lacks the
characteristic self-image instability and recurrent suicidal gestures seen here. Avoidant PD
is characterized by social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy rather than impulsivity.
Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) is the most effective evidence-based treatment for
managing BPD symptoms. Risk assessment for suicide is a critical and ongoing component
of clinical care for these patients.
6. A patient has experienced a depressed mood, loss of interest in activities, and weight loss
for the past three weeks. These symptoms represent a change from previous functioning.
What is the minimum duration required for a Major Depressive Episode?
A. 1 week
B. 6 months
C. 1 month
D. 2 weeks
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: The DSM-5-TR requires symptoms to be present for at least two
weeks for a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder. This period ensures that the symptoms
are persistent and not just a transient reaction to stress. Other criteria include sleep
disturbance, fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness. Differential diagnosis should rule out
grief or adjustment disorder, which may have similar presentations. Treatment options
include SSRIs and evidence-based psychotherapies like CBT or Interpersonal Therapy.
7. A veteran reports intrusive memories, nightmares, and severe emotional distress when
reminded of a combat event that occurred six months ago. He avoids talking about the event
and feels constantly ‘on edge.’ What is the diagnosis?
A. Acute Stress Disorder
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C. Adjustment Disorder
D. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: PTSD is diagnosed when symptoms like intrusion, avoidance, and
hyperarousal last for more than one month following trauma. Acute Stress Disorder is the
appropriate diagnosis if the symptoms last between three days and one month. The
veteran’s symptoms have persisted for six months, clearly meeting the temporal criteria for
PTSD. Evidence-based treatments include Trauma-Focused CBT or Eye Movement
Psychology Updated and Latest Questions and
Correct Answers with Rationale - Portage Learning
1. A 28-year-old female reports recurring episodes of intense fear, heart palpitations, and
shortness of breath that occur without warning. She now avoids taking the subway or going
to the grocery store because she fears she might have an attack and be unable to escape or
find help. Which diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Panic Disorder alone
B. Social Anxiety Disorder
C. Agoraphobia and Panic Disorder
D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: This patient meets criteria for Panic Disorder due to her recurrent
unexpected panic attacks. The secondary development of avoidance behavior in places like
subways and stores specifically indicates Agoraphobia. Differential diagnosis must rule out
Social Anxiety Disorder, where fear is based on social scrutiny rather than escape
difficulties. Evidence-based treatment typically includes Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
(CBT) and exposure to the feared environments. Clinical judgment suggests that the
patient’s impairment is significant due to the limitations placed on her daily mobility.
2. A patient presents with a history of one week of abnormally elevated mood, decreased
need for sleep (3 hours), pressured speech, and a recent $10,000 spending spree on
unnecessary luxury items. He has no history of depressive episodes. What is the most likely
DSM-5-TR diagnosis?
A. Major Depressive Disorder
B. Bipolar II Disorder
C. Cyclothymic Disorder
D. Bipolar I Disorder
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: The presence of a single manic episode lasting at least one week is
sufficient for a Bipolar I diagnosis. Bipolar II requires a hypomanic episode and a major
depressive episode, which is not present here. Cyclothymic disorder involves chronic mood
fluctuations but does not meet full manic criteria. Lithium or mood stabilizers are the first-
line evidence-based treatments for this condition. The clinician must prioritize risk
assessment regarding the patient’s financial stability and potential for impulsivity-driven
harm.
,3. Which of the following describes a negative symptom of Schizophrenia?
A. Auditory hallucinations
B. Avolition
C. Delusions of grandeur
D. Disorganized speech
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Negative symptoms refer to the absence or reduction of normal
functions, such as avolition or flat affect. Hallucinations and delusions are categorized as
positive symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functioning.
Disorganized speech is also a positive symptom reflecting thought disorder. Understanding
the distinction is vital for treatment planning, as typical antipsychotics often target positive
symptoms more effectively than negative ones. Long-term psychosocial rehabilitation is
often required to address the functional impairment caused by negative symptoms.
4. A 24-year-old man feels an overwhelming urge to check the locks on his front door exactly
12 times before leaving his house. He recognizes that this behavior is excessive but feels
intense anxiety if he does not complete the ritual. This scenario best illustrates:
A. A specific phobia
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
D. Borderline Personality Disorder
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is characterized by intrusive
thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions) performed to alleviate
anxiety. In this case, the urge to check the locks is the compulsion driven by the fear of
being unsafe. The patient’s insight into the irrationality of the behavior is a common feature
of OCD. Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is the gold-standard evidence-based
psychological treatment for this disorder. Clinical assessment should determine the time-
consuming nature of these rituals and their impact on daily functioning.
5. A client exhibits a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image,
and affect, along with marked impulsivity and recurrent suicidal gestures. Which personality
disorder is most likely?
A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
B. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
C. Avoidant Personality Disorder
D. Borderline Personality Disorder
, Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Borderline Personality Disorder is defined by instability in moods,
self-image, and relationships, often including self-harm. Narcissistic PD lacks the
characteristic self-image instability and recurrent suicidal gestures seen here. Avoidant PD
is characterized by social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy rather than impulsivity.
Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) is the most effective evidence-based treatment for
managing BPD symptoms. Risk assessment for suicide is a critical and ongoing component
of clinical care for these patients.
6. A patient has experienced a depressed mood, loss of interest in activities, and weight loss
for the past three weeks. These symptoms represent a change from previous functioning.
What is the minimum duration required for a Major Depressive Episode?
A. 1 week
B. 6 months
C. 1 month
D. 2 weeks
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: The DSM-5-TR requires symptoms to be present for at least two
weeks for a diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder. This period ensures that the symptoms
are persistent and not just a transient reaction to stress. Other criteria include sleep
disturbance, fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness. Differential diagnosis should rule out
grief or adjustment disorder, which may have similar presentations. Treatment options
include SSRIs and evidence-based psychotherapies like CBT or Interpersonal Therapy.
7. A veteran reports intrusive memories, nightmares, and severe emotional distress when
reminded of a combat event that occurred six months ago. He avoids talking about the event
and feels constantly ‘on edge.’ What is the diagnosis?
A. Acute Stress Disorder
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C. Adjustment Disorder
D. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: PTSD is diagnosed when symptoms like intrusion, avoidance, and
hyperarousal last for more than one month following trauma. Acute Stress Disorder is the
appropriate diagnosis if the symptoms last between three days and one month. The
veteran’s symptoms have persisted for six months, clearly meeting the temporal criteria for
PTSD. Evidence-based treatments include Trauma-Focused CBT or Eye Movement
