PSYC 210 | PSYC210 Exam 3: Abnormal Psychology
Updated and Latest Questions and Correct
Answers with Rationale - Portage Learning
1. A 34-year-old patient presents with a persistent low mood, loss of interest in all activities,
and significant weight loss over the past three weeks. Which diagnosis is most appropriate
based on the duration and nature of these symptoms?
A. Persistent Depressive Disorder
B. Bipolar II Disorder
C. Cyclothymic Disorder
D. Major Depressive Disorder
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Major Depressive Disorder requires at least a two-week period of
depressed mood or loss of interest. The patient’s symptoms of hopelessness and weight
loss align with the DSM-5 criteria for a major depressive episode. Persistent Depressive
Disorder is incorrect because it requires a minimum duration of two years. Bipolar II is not
supported as there is no mention of hypomania in the scenario. Early identification of these
symptoms is essential for initiating effective pharmacological or psychotherapeutic
treatment.
2. Which neurobiological factor is most commonly associated with the ‘Permissive
Hypothesis’ regarding mood disorders?
A. Low levels of Serotonin
B. High levels of Glutamate
C. Excessive Dopamine in the limbic system
D. Reduced Acetylcholine activity
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: The permissive hypothesis suggests that low serotonin levels allow
other neurotransmitters to fluctuate wildly. When serotonin is low, a drop in
norepinephrine may lead to depression, while an increase may lead to mania. This theory
explains why serotonin-specific medications can be effective for a range of mood
instabilities. Other options like dopamine are more specifically linked to the reward system
rather than this specific permissive framework. Understanding these chemical balances
helps clinicians choose the right class of antidepressants for their patients.
,3. A patient experiences alternating periods of hypomanic symptoms and mild depressive
symptoms for over two years without meeting full criteria for a major episode. What is the
likely diagnosis?
A. Cyclothymic Disorder
B. Bipolar II Disorder
C. Bipolar I Disorder
D. Double Depression
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Cyclothymic Disorder is characterized by at least two years of
numerous periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms. These fluctuations are not
severe enough to meet the full criteria for a Major Depressive or Manic episode. Bipolar I
and II are excluded because they involve full-blown manic or hypomanic/depressive
episodes respectively. Double depression refers to a major depressive episode
superimposed on persistent depressive disorder. This diagnosis highlights the chronic but
less intense nature of the patient’s mood instability.
4. According to Aaron Beck’s cognitive theory, the ‘Cognitive Triad’ of depression includes
negative views about which of the following?
A. Self, World, and Future
B. Past, Present, and Future
C. Self, Family, and Career
D. Health, Wealth, and Relationships
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Beck’s Cognitive Triad posits that depressed individuals hold
negative views of themselves, their world, and their future. These distorted thought
patterns contribute to the maintenance of depressive symptoms and emotional distress.
Therapy focusing on this triad aims to challenge and restructure these maladaptive beliefs.
While past experiences influence these views, the triad specifically categorizes the targets
of current cognitive distortions. Addressing these three areas is a cornerstone of Cognitive
Behavioral Therapy for mood disorders.
5. In assessing a patient for suicide risk, which factor is considered the strongest predictor of
a completed suicide?
A. Expressing sadness or tearfulness
B. Being female
C. A history of previous suicide attempts
D. Having a large supportive family
, Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: A history of previous attempts is one of the most significant
indicators of future risk for completed suicide. While women attempt suicide more
frequently, men are more likely to complete the act due to more lethal means. Expressing
sadness is a common symptom of depression but does not inherently signal immediate
lethality. Social support, such as a large family, is generally considered a protective factor
rather than a risk factor. Clinicians must prioritize evaluating past behaviors when
performing a comprehensive lethality assessment.
6. Which medication is considered the ‘gold standard’ for treating Bipolar I Disorder and
preventing manic episodes?
A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Lithium Carbonate
C. Alprazolam (Xanax)
D. Sertraline (Zoloft)
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Lithium is the primary mood stabilizer used to treat and prevent
manic episodes in Bipolar I Disorder. It is uniquely effective at reducing the risk of suicide
among patients with mood disorders. Fluoxetine and Sertraline are SSRIs and can actually
trigger manic switches if used without a stabilizer in bipolar patients. Alprazolam is a
benzodiazepine used for anxiety and does not treat the core pathology of bipolar disorder.
Careful monitoring of blood levels is required to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid
toxicity.
7. Martin Seligman’s theory of ‘Learned Helplessness’ suggests that depression results from:
A. The perception that one has no control over life events
B. Chemical imbalances in the prefrontal cortex
C. Overactive defense mechanisms in the unconscious mind
D. A lack of positive reinforcement from the environment
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Learned Helplessness occurs when individuals feel that their actions
have no impact on their outcomes. This psychological state leads to passivity and a lack of
motivation, characteristic of clinical depression. This theory was originally developed
through animal models where subjects stopped attempting to escape adverse stimuli. It
emphasizes the importance of internal, stable, and global attributions for negative events.
Modern revisions of this theory focus on how hopelessness acts as a proximal cause for
depressive symptoms.
Updated and Latest Questions and Correct
Answers with Rationale - Portage Learning
1. A 34-year-old patient presents with a persistent low mood, loss of interest in all activities,
and significant weight loss over the past three weeks. Which diagnosis is most appropriate
based on the duration and nature of these symptoms?
A. Persistent Depressive Disorder
B. Bipolar II Disorder
C. Cyclothymic Disorder
D. Major Depressive Disorder
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Major Depressive Disorder requires at least a two-week period of
depressed mood or loss of interest. The patient’s symptoms of hopelessness and weight
loss align with the DSM-5 criteria for a major depressive episode. Persistent Depressive
Disorder is incorrect because it requires a minimum duration of two years. Bipolar II is not
supported as there is no mention of hypomania in the scenario. Early identification of these
symptoms is essential for initiating effective pharmacological or psychotherapeutic
treatment.
2. Which neurobiological factor is most commonly associated with the ‘Permissive
Hypothesis’ regarding mood disorders?
A. Low levels of Serotonin
B. High levels of Glutamate
C. Excessive Dopamine in the limbic system
D. Reduced Acetylcholine activity
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: The permissive hypothesis suggests that low serotonin levels allow
other neurotransmitters to fluctuate wildly. When serotonin is low, a drop in
norepinephrine may lead to depression, while an increase may lead to mania. This theory
explains why serotonin-specific medications can be effective for a range of mood
instabilities. Other options like dopamine are more specifically linked to the reward system
rather than this specific permissive framework. Understanding these chemical balances
helps clinicians choose the right class of antidepressants for their patients.
,3. A patient experiences alternating periods of hypomanic symptoms and mild depressive
symptoms for over two years without meeting full criteria for a major episode. What is the
likely diagnosis?
A. Cyclothymic Disorder
B. Bipolar II Disorder
C. Bipolar I Disorder
D. Double Depression
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Cyclothymic Disorder is characterized by at least two years of
numerous periods of hypomanic and depressive symptoms. These fluctuations are not
severe enough to meet the full criteria for a Major Depressive or Manic episode. Bipolar I
and II are excluded because they involve full-blown manic or hypomanic/depressive
episodes respectively. Double depression refers to a major depressive episode
superimposed on persistent depressive disorder. This diagnosis highlights the chronic but
less intense nature of the patient’s mood instability.
4. According to Aaron Beck’s cognitive theory, the ‘Cognitive Triad’ of depression includes
negative views about which of the following?
A. Self, World, and Future
B. Past, Present, and Future
C. Self, Family, and Career
D. Health, Wealth, and Relationships
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Beck’s Cognitive Triad posits that depressed individuals hold
negative views of themselves, their world, and their future. These distorted thought
patterns contribute to the maintenance of depressive symptoms and emotional distress.
Therapy focusing on this triad aims to challenge and restructure these maladaptive beliefs.
While past experiences influence these views, the triad specifically categorizes the targets
of current cognitive distortions. Addressing these three areas is a cornerstone of Cognitive
Behavioral Therapy for mood disorders.
5. In assessing a patient for suicide risk, which factor is considered the strongest predictor of
a completed suicide?
A. Expressing sadness or tearfulness
B. Being female
C. A history of previous suicide attempts
D. Having a large supportive family
, Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: A history of previous attempts is one of the most significant
indicators of future risk for completed suicide. While women attempt suicide more
frequently, men are more likely to complete the act due to more lethal means. Expressing
sadness is a common symptom of depression but does not inherently signal immediate
lethality. Social support, such as a large family, is generally considered a protective factor
rather than a risk factor. Clinicians must prioritize evaluating past behaviors when
performing a comprehensive lethality assessment.
6. Which medication is considered the ‘gold standard’ for treating Bipolar I Disorder and
preventing manic episodes?
A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Lithium Carbonate
C. Alprazolam (Xanax)
D. Sertraline (Zoloft)
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Lithium is the primary mood stabilizer used to treat and prevent
manic episodes in Bipolar I Disorder. It is uniquely effective at reducing the risk of suicide
among patients with mood disorders. Fluoxetine and Sertraline are SSRIs and can actually
trigger manic switches if used without a stabilizer in bipolar patients. Alprazolam is a
benzodiazepine used for anxiety and does not treat the core pathology of bipolar disorder.
Careful monitoring of blood levels is required to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid
toxicity.
7. Martin Seligman’s theory of ‘Learned Helplessness’ suggests that depression results from:
A. The perception that one has no control over life events
B. Chemical imbalances in the prefrontal cortex
C. Overactive defense mechanisms in the unconscious mind
D. A lack of positive reinforcement from the environment
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Learned Helplessness occurs when individuals feel that their actions
have no impact on their outcomes. This psychological state leads to passivity and a lack of
motivation, characteristic of clinical depression. This theory was originally developed
through animal models where subjects stopped attempting to escape adverse stimuli. It
emphasizes the importance of internal, stable, and global attributions for negative events.
Modern revisions of this theory focus on how hopelessness acts as a proximal cause for
depressive symptoms.
