NSG 6440 EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM
NEWEST 2026 | NSG6440 PREDICTOR
FINAL EXAM REVIEW WITH COMPLETE
350 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY
GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
Question 1: Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with
chronic renal failure?
✅ B. Hemodialysis 4 days a week
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on managing established disease and preventing
further complications. Hemodialysis is treatment for existing renal failure. Think "T and
T" = Treatment .
Question 2: Which statement about confusion is true?
✅ D. Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults
Rationale: Multiple medications are a common cause of confusion in the elderly.
Confusion is not a disease process itself, is not always temporary, and age alone is not a
reliable predictor .
Question 3: Which of the following indicates a diagnosis of dementia?
✅ D. Hard time finding words
Rationale: Dementia typically presents with gradual onset of cognitive deficits including
word-finding difficulty. Acute onset after infection suggests delirium, not dementia .
Question 4: A score of 12 to 24 on this test indicates intermediate Alzheimer's disease:
✅ D. MMSE (Mini-Mental State Examination)
Rationale: The MMSE scores range from 0-30. Scores of 12-24 indicate moderate
,(intermediate) dementia. SLUMS and MoCA are also cognitive screening tools but have
different scoring ranges .
Question 5: Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Alzheimer's disease?
✅ C. Patient has Down's syndrome
Rationale: Individuals with Down's syndrome are at significantly increased risk for early-
onset Alzheimer's disease due to the extra copy of chromosome 21, which contains the
APP gene .
Question 6: Over the course of 3 years, a patient has had two MS flares with complete
recovery in between occurrences. Which MS classification fits their disease process?
✅ B. Relapsing-remitting
Rationale: Relapsing-remitting MS is characterized by acute exacerbations followed by
periods of complete or partial recovery with no disease progression between attacks .
Question 7: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
✅ B. A blank stare
Rationale: Absence seizures (petit mal) are characterized by a brief, sudden lapse of
consciousness with a blank stare, typically lasting only a few seconds. Unlike generalized
tonic-clonic seizures, there is no involuntary voiding .
Question 8: Before administering tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), which diagnostic
test is required?
✅ C. Head CT
Rationale: A non-contrast head CT is required to rule out hemorrhagic stroke before tPA
administration. This must be obtained and read before tPA can be given .
Question 9: Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident
who has difficulty chewing?
✅ A. CN V (Trigeminal nerve)
Rationale: Cranial nerve V (trigeminal) controls the muscles of mastication (chewing). CN
VII (facial) controls facial expression; CN IX and X are involved in swallowing .
, Question 10: Which of the following has been linked to a delay in treatment for stroke?
✅ D. Patient calls their primary-care provider (PCP) instead of 911 at sign of
stroke
Rationale: Calling a PCP instead of emergency services leads to significant treatment
delays. Public education emphasizes calling 911 immediately for stroke symptoms .
Question 11: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
✅ D. A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Rationale: Cluster headaches predominantly affect middle-aged men and often awaken
patients from sleep. They are characterized by severe unilateral orbital pain with
autonomic features .
Question 12: When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may
help this kind of headache?
✅ C. Cluster
Rationale: High-flow oxygen (100% at 12-15 L/min) is an effective acute treatment for
cluster headaches, often providing relief within 15 minutes .
Question 13: A patient has been diagnosed with meningitis caused by a Streptococcus
pneumoniae infection. Which treatment would be appropriate?
✅ A. Cefotaxime
Rationale: Third-generation cephalosporins such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone are first-
line for bacterial meningitis caused by S. pneumoniae. Isoniazid is for TB, acyclovir for
viral, amphotericin for fungal .
Question 14: Gabby, aged 22, has Bell's palsy on the right side of her face. What do you
tell her about prognosis?
✅ A. "Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months."
Rationale: Bell's palsy (idiopathic facial nerve paralysis) has a favorable prognosis, with
the majority of patients experiencing complete or near-complete recovery within 3-6
months .
NEWEST 2026 | NSG6440 PREDICTOR
FINAL EXAM REVIEW WITH COMPLETE
350 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS/ ALREADY
GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
Question 1: Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with
chronic renal failure?
✅ B. Hemodialysis 4 days a week
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on managing established disease and preventing
further complications. Hemodialysis is treatment for existing renal failure. Think "T and
T" = Treatment .
Question 2: Which statement about confusion is true?
✅ D. Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults
Rationale: Multiple medications are a common cause of confusion in the elderly.
Confusion is not a disease process itself, is not always temporary, and age alone is not a
reliable predictor .
Question 3: Which of the following indicates a diagnosis of dementia?
✅ D. Hard time finding words
Rationale: Dementia typically presents with gradual onset of cognitive deficits including
word-finding difficulty. Acute onset after infection suggests delirium, not dementia .
Question 4: A score of 12 to 24 on this test indicates intermediate Alzheimer's disease:
✅ D. MMSE (Mini-Mental State Examination)
Rationale: The MMSE scores range from 0-30. Scores of 12-24 indicate moderate
,(intermediate) dementia. SLUMS and MoCA are also cognitive screening tools but have
different scoring ranges .
Question 5: Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Alzheimer's disease?
✅ C. Patient has Down's syndrome
Rationale: Individuals with Down's syndrome are at significantly increased risk for early-
onset Alzheimer's disease due to the extra copy of chromosome 21, which contains the
APP gene .
Question 6: Over the course of 3 years, a patient has had two MS flares with complete
recovery in between occurrences. Which MS classification fits their disease process?
✅ B. Relapsing-remitting
Rationale: Relapsing-remitting MS is characterized by acute exacerbations followed by
periods of complete or partial recovery with no disease progression between attacks .
Question 7: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:
✅ B. A blank stare
Rationale: Absence seizures (petit mal) are characterized by a brief, sudden lapse of
consciousness with a blank stare, typically lasting only a few seconds. Unlike generalized
tonic-clonic seizures, there is no involuntary voiding .
Question 8: Before administering tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), which diagnostic
test is required?
✅ C. Head CT
Rationale: A non-contrast head CT is required to rule out hemorrhagic stroke before tPA
administration. This must be obtained and read before tPA can be given .
Question 9: Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident
who has difficulty chewing?
✅ A. CN V (Trigeminal nerve)
Rationale: Cranial nerve V (trigeminal) controls the muscles of mastication (chewing). CN
VII (facial) controls facial expression; CN IX and X are involved in swallowing .
, Question 10: Which of the following has been linked to a delay in treatment for stroke?
✅ D. Patient calls their primary-care provider (PCP) instead of 911 at sign of
stroke
Rationale: Calling a PCP instead of emergency services leads to significant treatment
delays. Public education emphasizes calling 911 immediately for stroke symptoms .
Question 11: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?
✅ D. A 45-year-old male awakened at night
Rationale: Cluster headaches predominantly affect middle-aged men and often awaken
patients from sleep. They are characterized by severe unilateral orbital pain with
autonomic features .
Question 12: When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may
help this kind of headache?
✅ C. Cluster
Rationale: High-flow oxygen (100% at 12-15 L/min) is an effective acute treatment for
cluster headaches, often providing relief within 15 minutes .
Question 13: A patient has been diagnosed with meningitis caused by a Streptococcus
pneumoniae infection. Which treatment would be appropriate?
✅ A. Cefotaxime
Rationale: Third-generation cephalosporins such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone are first-
line for bacterial meningitis caused by S. pneumoniae. Isoniazid is for TB, acyclovir for
viral, amphotericin for fungal .
Question 14: Gabby, aged 22, has Bell's palsy on the right side of her face. What do you
tell her about prognosis?
✅ A. "Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months."
Rationale: Bell's palsy (idiopathic facial nerve paralysis) has a favorable prognosis, with
the majority of patients experiencing complete or near-complete recovery within 3-6
months .
