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SNHD Paramedic Protocol Exam | Southern Nevada Health District | Paramedic Protocols, Emergency Medical Services, Prehospital Care, Patient Assessment | Open-Ended Questions and Answers with Verified Rationales | Get HighScore | Instant Download

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GET HIGHSCORE on the SNHD Paramedic Protocol Exam with this comprehensive open-ended Q&A resource covering the official Southern Nevada Health District paramedic protocols—featuring verified questions and answers with detailed rationales. The purpose of the Clark County EMS protocol manual is to standardize prehospital patient care in Clark County . Nothing contained in these protocols shall be construed to expand the scope of practice of any licensed Attendant beyond that which is identified in Clark County Emergency Medical Services Regulations . Patient care should be rendered while en route to a definitive treatment facility . This resource covers all essential protocol areas for paramedic certification. MASTER PATIENT ASSESSMENT & GENERAL PROTOCOLS Patient Definition: A patient is any individual that, upon contact with an EMS system, has a complaint or mechanism suggestive of potential illness or injury, obvious evidence of illness or injury, OR is identified by an informed 2nd/3rd party caller as requiring evaluation . Radio Contact Requirements: Radio contact must be established to receiving facility for all trauma patients, emergency (code 3) returns, need for telemetry physician, and per protocol . General Assessment Sequence: The General Assessment protocols must be followed in the specific sequence noted . Waiting Room Criteria: A patient may be placed in the waiting room ONLY if ALL criteria are met: HR 60-100, RR 10-20, SBP 100-180, DBP 60-100, SpO2 94% on room air, A&O x4, received only 1 single dose of analgesia and/or antiemetic, does NOT require EKG monitoring, and can maintain sitting position . Trauma Patient with GCS 8: For trauma patient with GCS 8 and NO palpable radial pulse: use BVM if SpO2 ≤94%, establish IV access and give 1L NS bolus . For trauma patient with GCS 8: maintain SpO2 94%, establish IV access . Suspected TBI Treatment: Raise head of bed to 30 degrees and maintain ETCO2 at 35 mmHg . Cervical Stabilization Exceptions: Cervical stabilization is NOT performed for penetrating trauma to the head and/or neck with no evidence of spinal injury, injuries where placement of collar might compromise assessment/airway management, and patients in cardiac arrest . MASTER TRAUMA & BURN MANAGEMENT Parkland Burn Formula: 4 mL × (body weight in kg) × (% BSA burned) = total fluids for 24 hours. Give 1/2 in the first 8 hours; give remainder over next 16 hours . Burn Classification: 1st degree (superficial) - epidermis, red and painful; 2nd degree (partial thickness) - dermis and epidermis, blistering; 3rd degree (full thickness) - subcutaneous layer and all layers above, painless, charred or leathery skin . Burn Transport Criteria: Transport to burn center for: 2nd/3rd degree burns 10% BSA in patients under 10 or over 50 years old; 2nd/3rd degree burns 20% BSA; inhalational injury; circumferential burns; burns involving face, hands, feet, genitalia, perineum, or major joints; electrical burns including lightning injury; chemical burns . Burn Wound Care: Stop the burning process with saline for thermal burns. Do NOT remove clothing stuck to patient after burn. Cover burns with dry sterile dressing . Chemical/Electrical Eye Exposure: Flush eyes for 10-15 minutes for chemical/electrical exposure . Pediatric Fall Trauma Criteria: For children, a fall greater than 10 feet or two times the height of the child requires transport to a Level 1 or 2 trauma center . Adult Fall Trauma Criteria: For adults, a fall greater than 20 feet requires transport to a Level 1, 2, or 3 trauma center . Motor Vehicle Ejection: A patient ejected from a motor vehicle requires transport to a Level 1, 2, or 3 trauma center (NOT only Level 1 and 2) . Auto vs Pedestrian/Bicyclist: An auto vs pedestrian/bicyclist thrown, run over, or with significant impact greater than 20 mph requires transport to a Level 1, 2, or 3 trauma center . GCS Threshold for Trauma Center: Patient with GCS less than 13 must be transported to a Level 1 or 2 trauma center . Step 2 Trauma Criteria: Two proximal long bone fractures places a patient in Step 2 of the Trauma Field Triage Criteria . Rule of Nines: Head = 9%, one arm = 9%, front torso = 18%, back = 18%, each leg = 18%, groin = 1%. For children, head = 18%, front = 18% . MASTER CARDIAC & RESPIRATORY PROTOCOLS Pulmonary Edema/CHF - Hypertensive (DBP 100 mmHg) : Nitroglycerin dose is 1.6 mg SL . Pulmonary Edema/CHF - Normotensive: Nitroglycerin dose is 0.4 mg SL . Nitroglycerin Contraindication: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated for any patient having taken Viagra or similar medication in the past 24 hours, or 48 hours for Tadalafil or similar . Hyperkalemia EKG Findings: Bradycardia with widening QRS complexes . Hyperkalemia Potassium Levels: Hyperkalemia defined as potassium level 5.5 mmol/L. Potassium 5.5-6.5 mmol/L causes tall tented T waves; 6.5-7.5 mmol/L causes loss of P waves . Hyperkalemia Treatment: Cardiac monitor/12-lead EKG, Albuterol 2.5mg continuous SVN, Calcium Chloride 1.0g slow IVP, Bicarb 1.0 mEq/kg slow IVP. Calcium Chloride is contraindicated if patient is taking Digoxin . Shock (Non-trauma, Non-cardiogenic) : Administer Normal Saline 500-2000 mL bolus . Dopamine Dose for Shock: 5-20 mcg/kg/min, titrate to maintain SBP 100 mmHg . Albuterol Dose: 2.5 mg in 3 mL SVN; may be repeated as needed/continuous/until improvement . Hypoxia as Cause of Cardiac Arrest: If hypoxia is suspected cause of cardiac arrest, early ventilation is recommended . BVM Acceptability: BVM is an acceptable method of ventilating and managing an airway if pulse oximetry can be maintained at or above 90% . CPAP Indications: CPAP may be performed on patients with respiratory distress with bronchospasm, pneumonia, or CHF . Vagal Maneuver Requirements: Before a vagal maneuver can be performed on an adult patient, cardiac monitoring and vascular access must be established . Wide Complex Tachycardia Definition: QRS duration 0.12 sec . Adult Bradycardia - STEMI: IV and cardiac monitor, ACS protocol, consider pacing, consider Atropine 0.5 mg IVP every 3-5 min (max dose 3.0 mg) . Adult Bradycardia - Beta Blocker-Induced: Glucagon 1 mg IV . Adult Bradycardia - Calcium Channel Blocker-Induced: Calcium Chloride 1.0 g IV . MASTER ALLERGIC REACTION & ANAPHYLAXIS Allergic Reaction Severities: Mild = skin rashes, itchy sensation, or hives with no respiratory involvement; Moderate = skin disorders and may include respiratory involvement like wheezing, yet patient still maintains good tidal volume; Severe = skin disorders, respiratory difficulty, and may include hypotension . Allergic Reaction with NO Airway Involvement: IV access, Benadryl 50 mg IM/IV, reassess in 5 minutes . Allergic Reaction with Airway Involvement: Epi 1:1000 0.5 mg IM (may repeat q15 min up to max 1.5 mg), Albuterol 2.5 mg SVN, ventilation management, cardiac monitor, IV 500-2000 mL NS, Benadryl 50 mg IM/IV . Severe Allergic Reaction (Shock) : Epi 1:1000 0.5 mg IM (max 1.5 mg), Albuterol 2.5 mg SVN, cardiac monitor, IV 500-2000 mL NS, Benadryl 50 mg IM

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SNHD Paramedic Protocol Exam | Southern Nevada
Health District | Paramedic Protocols, Emergency
Medical Services, Prehospital Care, Patient
Assessment | Open-Ended Q&A with Rationales

Exam Structure:

Subject: Paramedic Protocols / Emergency Medical Services / SNHD

Source: SNHD Paramedic Protocol Exam – 2026

Format: Open-ended questions with Correct Answers and rationales




1. Identify the Parkland Burn Formula for Fluid Replacement.
Correct Answer: 4 mL × (body weight in kg) × (% BSA burned) = total
fluids for 24 hours. Give 1/2 in the first 8 hours; give remainder over next
16 hours.
Rationale:
1. The Parkland formula calculates fluid resuscitation for burn patients.
2. Lactated Ringer's is the recommended fluid.
3. Half of the total volume is given in the first 8 hours from the time of burn.
4. The remaining half is given over the next 16 hours.

2. For children, a fall greater than ______ requires transport to a Level 1
or 2 trauma center.
Correct Answer: 10 feet or two times the height of the child
Rationale:
1. Falls from significant height indicate high mechanism of injury.
2. Children have different body proportions and injury patterns than adults.
3. Two times the child's height accounts for the relative impact force.

3. What is the dose of Naloxone (Narcan) in the setting of a suspected
overdose?

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Correct Answer: 2.0 mg IN/IM/IV; may be repeated to a max dose of 10 mg
Rationale:
1. Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression.
2. Higher initial doses (2 mg) may be needed for synthetic opioids like
fentanyl.
3. Total maximum dose is 10 mg.

4. For a traumatic cardiac arrest, what interventions must be
performed prior to considering terminating resuscitation efforts?
Correct Answer: Provide effective ventilation with 100% oxygenation for
two (2) minutes; Open airway with basic life support measures; Perform
bilateral needle thoracentesis if tension pneumothorax suspected
Rationale:
1. Airway patency is the first priority in any resuscitation.
2. Two minutes of effective ventilation with 100% oxygen addresses reversible
causes of hypoxia.
3. Tension pneumothorax is a reversible cause of traumatic arrest requiring
immediate decompression.

5. For a patient in Pulmonary Edema/CHF who is hypertensive with a
diastolic blood pressure greater than 100 mmHg, what is the dose of
Nitroglycerin?
Correct Answer: 1.6 mg SL
Rationale:
1. Hypertensive pulmonary edema requires higher doses of nitroglycerin for
afterload reduction.
2. Sublingual nitroglycerin is typically 0.4 mg per dose.
3. 1.6 mg represents four 0.4 mg tablets.

6. Which patient(s) can be taken to a hospital that has been placed on
internal disaster?
Correct Answer: A patient in which an airway cannot be established; A
patient in cardiac arrest
Rationale:
1. Hospitals on internal disaster have limited resources and may divert stable
patients.
2. Patients without an established airway or in cardiac arrest have immediate

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life threats.
3. These patients cannot tolerate transport to a more distant facility.

7. A patient who was ejected from a motor vehicle requires transport
to a Level 1 and 2 trauma center only.
Correct Answer: False (Level 1, 2 or 3)
Rationale:
1. Ejection from a motor vehicle is a high-risk mechanism meeting trauma
center criteria.
2. Such patients should be transported to a Level 1, 2, OR 3 trauma center
depending on regional system.
3. The statement is false because Level 3 trauma centers also qualify for these
patients.

8. When should radio contact be established to a receiving facility?
Correct Answer: All trauma patients; Emergency (code 3) returns; Need
for telemetry physician; Per protocol
Rationale:
1. Radio contact ensures receiving facility notification and medical direction.
2. Trauma patients require preparation of the trauma team.
3. Code 3 (lights and sirens) returns require notification for traffic control
and ED preparation.

9. How often can additional Diazepam (Valium) doses be administered
to a pregnant patient who is refractory to Magnesium Sulfate?
Correct Answer: Every 5 minutes
Rationale:
1. Diazepam is used for seizure control in eclampsia when magnesium sulfate
is ineffective.
2. Doses may be repeated every 5 minutes as needed.
3. Airway management is essential due to respiratory depression risk.

10. For non-trauma patients, telemetry reports should include at a
minimum which of the following?
Correct Answer: Attendant/vehicle identification; Nature of call
(INFORMATION ONLY or REQUEST FOR PHYSICIAN ORDERS); Patient
information (number, age, sex); Patient condition (stable, full arrest);

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