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SNHD AEMT Protocols Exam| Southern Nevada
Health District | Advanced Emergency Medical
Technician, Prehospital Protocols, Emergency Care,
Patient Assessment Multiple Choice with Rationales
Exam Structure:
Subject: Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT) / Prehospital Protocols /
SNHD
Source: SNHD AEMT Protocols Exam – 2026
Format: Multiple-choice and open-ended questions with Correct Answers and
rationales
1. For a patient in shock, what should the oxygen saturation be kept
above?
Correct Answer: 94%
Rationale:
1. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at or above 94% to ensure
adequate tissue oxygenation.
2. Shock states impair oxygen delivery; supplemental oxygen helps meet
metabolic demands.
3. Titrate oxygen to achieve target saturation while avoiding hyperoxia.
2. A patient on a legal psychiatric hold may be placed in the ER waiting
room.
Correct Answer: False
Rationale:
1. Patients on legal psychiatric holds require continuous observation and
cannot be placed in waiting rooms.
2. They pose potential risks to themselves or others and need secure
environments.
3. Psychiatric holds require transfer to an appropriate psychiatric facility or
ED bed.
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3. What is the goal of the protocol manual?
Correct Answer: Standardize prehospital care in Clark County
Rationale:
1. Protocol manuals ensure consistent care across all EMS providers.
2. Standardization improves patient outcomes and reduces variability.
3. Protocols are based on evidence-based guidelines.
4. Describe a partial thickness (2nd degree) burn.
Correct Answer: Blistering
Rationale:
1. Partial thickness burns involve the epidermis and dermis.
2. Blistering is the hallmark sign of second-degree burns.
3. These burns are painful, moist, and may appear red or mottled.
5. Oxygen therapy should be established to keep SpO2 above what
level?
Correct Answer: 94%
Rationale:
1. This matches question 1, confirming the 94% target.
2. Adequate oxygenation is critical for tissue perfusion.
3. SpO2 below 94% indicates hypoxemia requiring intervention.
6. When should defibrillation be attempted during a witnessed
cardiac arrest?
Correct Answer: Immediately
Rationale:
1. For witnessed cardiac arrest, immediate defibrillation (if indicated)
improves survival.
2. Early defibrillation is the most important intervention for shockable
rhythms (VF/pVT).
3. CPR should be initiated immediately, but defibrillation should occur as
soon as the AED/defibrillator is ready.
7. What must exist for an emergency care physician to direct a
prehospital provider in rendering care that is not explicitly listed
within the protocols?
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Correct Answer: The provider must feel capable, based on the instructions
given by the telemetry physician, of correctly performing the directed care.
Both the telemetry physician and the provider must acknowledge and agree
that the patient's condition and extraordinary care are not addressed
elsewhere within these medical protocols. The telemetry physician and the
provider must immediately notify the Office of EMS & Trauma System
(OEMSTS) of the extraordinary care situation.
Rationale:
1. Provider capability ensures patient safety when performing non-
protocol care.
2. Mutual agreement that the situation is not covered prevents misuse of
extraordinary care.
3. Notification to OEMSTS allows for system oversight and protocol updates.
8. What is recommended if hypoxia is the cause of the cardiac arrest?
Correct Answer: Early ventilation
Rationale:
1. Hypoxic cardiac arrest (e.g., drowning, respiratory arrest) requires
prioritizing ventilation.
2. Early oxygenation and ventilation address the underlying cause.
3. Chest compressions alone will not correct hypoxemia.
9. When transporting a patient to a remote outpatient emergency
department, telemetry contact does not have to be made.
Correct Answer: False
Rationale:
1. Telemetry contact is required for all patient transports to ensure continuity
of care.
2. Remote outpatient EDs may have limited resources; telemetry provides
medical direction.
3. Failure to establish contact may delay necessary interventions.
10. What is the ideal scene time for a patient having a stroke?
Correct Answer: Less than 10 minutes
Rationale:
1. Rapid transport to a stroke center is critical for time-sensitive
interventions (thrombolytics, thrombectomy).
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2. Scene time should be minimized to preserve the treatment window.
3. "Load and go" with assessment and interventions en route is the standard.
11. Localized cold injuries should be rubbed to warm the skin.
Correct Answer: False
Rationale:
1. Rubbing frostbitten tissue causes further damage due to ice crystals in the
skin.
2. Rewarming should be passive or with warm water (not friction).
3. Rubbing increases pain and tissue injury.
12. For a patient to be transported to an approved alcohol and drug
abuse facility, the pulse rate must be between what range?
Correct Answer: 60-120
Rationale:
1. Vital sign stability is required for transport to specialized facilities.
2. Pulse outside this range indicates potential medical instability.
3. Unstable patients require transport to a full-service emergency
department.
13. Which of the following should be performed for a patient with
hyperthermia?
Correct Answer: Remove from environment; Temperature measurement;
Remove tight clothing; Passive cooling measures
Rationale:
1. Removing the patient from the hot environment stops ongoing heat gain.
2. Temperature measurement guides treatment decisions.
3. Removing tight clothing and passive cooling (fans, cool environment) are
initial interventions.
14. What type of patients should ambulance attendants transfer?
Correct Answer: Only those whose therapy required during transfer lies
within the attendant's capabilities
Rationale:
1. Patient safety requires that transferring personnel can manage required
therapies.
2. If therapy exceeds the attendant's scope or skill level, a higher-level
SNHD AEMT Protocols Exam| Southern Nevada
Health District | Advanced Emergency Medical
Technician, Prehospital Protocols, Emergency Care,
Patient Assessment Multiple Choice with Rationales
Exam Structure:
Subject: Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT) / Prehospital Protocols /
SNHD
Source: SNHD AEMT Protocols Exam – 2026
Format: Multiple-choice and open-ended questions with Correct Answers and
rationales
1. For a patient in shock, what should the oxygen saturation be kept
above?
Correct Answer: 94%
Rationale:
1. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at or above 94% to ensure
adequate tissue oxygenation.
2. Shock states impair oxygen delivery; supplemental oxygen helps meet
metabolic demands.
3. Titrate oxygen to achieve target saturation while avoiding hyperoxia.
2. A patient on a legal psychiatric hold may be placed in the ER waiting
room.
Correct Answer: False
Rationale:
1. Patients on legal psychiatric holds require continuous observation and
cannot be placed in waiting rooms.
2. They pose potential risks to themselves or others and need secure
environments.
3. Psychiatric holds require transfer to an appropriate psychiatric facility or
ED bed.
, 2|Page
3. What is the goal of the protocol manual?
Correct Answer: Standardize prehospital care in Clark County
Rationale:
1. Protocol manuals ensure consistent care across all EMS providers.
2. Standardization improves patient outcomes and reduces variability.
3. Protocols are based on evidence-based guidelines.
4. Describe a partial thickness (2nd degree) burn.
Correct Answer: Blistering
Rationale:
1. Partial thickness burns involve the epidermis and dermis.
2. Blistering is the hallmark sign of second-degree burns.
3. These burns are painful, moist, and may appear red or mottled.
5. Oxygen therapy should be established to keep SpO2 above what
level?
Correct Answer: 94%
Rationale:
1. This matches question 1, confirming the 94% target.
2. Adequate oxygenation is critical for tissue perfusion.
3. SpO2 below 94% indicates hypoxemia requiring intervention.
6. When should defibrillation be attempted during a witnessed
cardiac arrest?
Correct Answer: Immediately
Rationale:
1. For witnessed cardiac arrest, immediate defibrillation (if indicated)
improves survival.
2. Early defibrillation is the most important intervention for shockable
rhythms (VF/pVT).
3. CPR should be initiated immediately, but defibrillation should occur as
soon as the AED/defibrillator is ready.
7. What must exist for an emergency care physician to direct a
prehospital provider in rendering care that is not explicitly listed
within the protocols?
, 3|Page
Correct Answer: The provider must feel capable, based on the instructions
given by the telemetry physician, of correctly performing the directed care.
Both the telemetry physician and the provider must acknowledge and agree
that the patient's condition and extraordinary care are not addressed
elsewhere within these medical protocols. The telemetry physician and the
provider must immediately notify the Office of EMS & Trauma System
(OEMSTS) of the extraordinary care situation.
Rationale:
1. Provider capability ensures patient safety when performing non-
protocol care.
2. Mutual agreement that the situation is not covered prevents misuse of
extraordinary care.
3. Notification to OEMSTS allows for system oversight and protocol updates.
8. What is recommended if hypoxia is the cause of the cardiac arrest?
Correct Answer: Early ventilation
Rationale:
1. Hypoxic cardiac arrest (e.g., drowning, respiratory arrest) requires
prioritizing ventilation.
2. Early oxygenation and ventilation address the underlying cause.
3. Chest compressions alone will not correct hypoxemia.
9. When transporting a patient to a remote outpatient emergency
department, telemetry contact does not have to be made.
Correct Answer: False
Rationale:
1. Telemetry contact is required for all patient transports to ensure continuity
of care.
2. Remote outpatient EDs may have limited resources; telemetry provides
medical direction.
3. Failure to establish contact may delay necessary interventions.
10. What is the ideal scene time for a patient having a stroke?
Correct Answer: Less than 10 minutes
Rationale:
1. Rapid transport to a stroke center is critical for time-sensitive
interventions (thrombolytics, thrombectomy).
, 4|Page
2. Scene time should be minimized to preserve the treatment window.
3. "Load and go" with assessment and interventions en route is the standard.
11. Localized cold injuries should be rubbed to warm the skin.
Correct Answer: False
Rationale:
1. Rubbing frostbitten tissue causes further damage due to ice crystals in the
skin.
2. Rewarming should be passive or with warm water (not friction).
3. Rubbing increases pain and tissue injury.
12. For a patient to be transported to an approved alcohol and drug
abuse facility, the pulse rate must be between what range?
Correct Answer: 60-120
Rationale:
1. Vital sign stability is required for transport to specialized facilities.
2. Pulse outside this range indicates potential medical instability.
3. Unstable patients require transport to a full-service emergency
department.
13. Which of the following should be performed for a patient with
hyperthermia?
Correct Answer: Remove from environment; Temperature measurement;
Remove tight clothing; Passive cooling measures
Rationale:
1. Removing the patient from the hot environment stops ongoing heat gain.
2. Temperature measurement guides treatment decisions.
3. Removing tight clothing and passive cooling (fans, cool environment) are
initial interventions.
14. What type of patients should ambulance attendants transfer?
Correct Answer: Only those whose therapy required during transfer lies
within the attendant's capabilities
Rationale:
1. Patient safety requires that transferring personnel can manage required
therapies.
2. If therapy exceeds the attendant's scope or skill level, a higher-level
