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NURS 172 Exam 3 2026 | Hondros College | Nursing Fundamentals, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Mental Health, Fluid and Electrolyte Balance | Multiple Choice and Select-All-That-Apply Questions and Answers with Verified Rationales | Get HighScore | Instant Down

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GET HIGHSCORE on the NURS 172 Exam 3 at Hondros College with this comprehensive test bank covering Nursing Fundamentals, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Mental Health, and Fluid & Electrolyte Balance—featuring multiple-choice and select-all-that-apply (SATA) questions with verified answers and detailed rationales. This resource is aligned with the Hondros College curriculum for the NUR 172 course and covers all key content areas expected on Exam 3, including mental health disorders, anxiety management, PTSD, body dysmorphic disorder (BDD), substance use disorders, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, IV therapy management, acid-base balance, and blood transfusion reactions . MASTER MENTAL HEALTH NURSING Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) Pharmacotherapy: Antidepressants are now considered first-line treatment choice for PTSD. There have been no controlled studies on the effect of antianxiety drugs on PTSD, and because of their addictive properties, antianxiety drugs are less desirable . Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) Symptoms: A college student diagnosed with GAD should exhibit fatigue, insomnia, and irritability. These are hallmark symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder . Behavioral Therapies for Phobias: For a client negatively impacted by claustrophobia, the nurse should explain imploding (flooding) and systematic desensitization as commonly used behavioral therapies . Personality Disorder Diagnosis Consequences: After reporting a sexual assault, a female soldier diagnosed with a personality disorder may face stigma of a psychiatric diagnosis, service discharge, loss of service-related disability compensation, and loss of health-care benefits . Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) Symptoms: Additional symptoms supporting BDD diagnosis include mirror checking, excessive grooming, and skin picking . Trauma Definition: An extremely distressing experience that causes severe emotional shock and may have long-lasting psychological effects is called trauma . Antianxiety Drugs Terminology: Antianxiety drugs are also called anxiolytics and minor tranquilizers . Substance Use Disorders: The three most common defense mechanisms used—denial, rationalization, and projection—must be confronted so accountability for the client's own behavior can be developed. A blackout is a phenomenon caused by the intake of alcohol in which long-term memory creation is impaired . Delirium Tremens (Alcohol Withdrawal Delirium): Assessment data diagnostic of this condition include tachycardia, hallucinations, and seizures . Alcohol Withdrawal Medications: Benzodiazepines such as lorazepam (2-4 mg q2-4 hr PRN), chlordiazepoxide (50-100 mg), and diazepam are used for withdrawal management. Thiamine 100 mg/day helps prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in alcoholism . MASTER FLUID & ELECTROLYTE BALANCE Dehydration Assessment: For a client with a hematocrit of 56% and serum sodium of 152 mEq/L, these findings indicate dehydration. Dehydration results in concentrated serum that causes lab values to increase because the blood has normal constituents but not enough volume to dilute the values . Dehydration Nursing Intervention: The most appropriate nursing intervention when caring for a patient with dehydration is to monitor daily weight and intake and output . Deficient Fluid Volume Finding: When assessing a patient admitted with nausea and vomiting, the finding that best supports the nursing diagnosis of deficient fluid volume is restlessness . Hypercalcemia Manifestations: While caring for a patient with metastatic bone cancer, clinical manifestations that would alert the nurse to hypercalcemia include weakness and depressed reflexes . Hypercalcemia Teaching: Appropriate statements for patient teaching regarding hypercalcemia include: renal calculi may occur as a complication; weight-bearing exercises can help keep calcium in the bones; and the patient should increase daily fluid intake to 3-4 L . Fluid Spacing Types: First spacing: Normal distribution of fluid in the ICF and ECF Second spacing: Abnormal accumulation of interstitial fluid (edema) Third spacing: Fluid accumulates in a portion of the body that cannot be exchanged easily with the rest of the ECF (burns, blisters) Hypertonic Solutions: Solutions in which the solutes are more concentrated than the surrounding cells. Hypertonic solutions cause water to move out of the cell, causing the cell to shrink and BP to increase . Hypotonic Solutions: Solutions in which the solutes are less concentrated than the surrounding cells. Water moves into the cell, causing cells to swell and BP to decrease. Used to treat cellular dehydration . Isotonic Solutions: Same osmolarity as cells—equal solute and water—no movement of water. Does not change cell volume. Examples include normal saline (0.9%), D5W, lactated ringers, and albumin 5% . Potassium Level (K+): Normal range is 3.5 - 5.0 mEq/L . Magnesium Level (Mg2+): Normal range is 1.5 - 2.5 mEq/L . Sodium Level (Na+): Normal range is 135 - 145 mEq/L . Calcium Level (Ca2+): Normal range is 8.6 - 10.2 mg/dL (4.5-5.5 mEq/L) . Phosphate Level (PO43-): Normal range is 2.4 - 4.4 mg/dL . Active Transport: Process in which molecules move against the concentration gradient . Anions: Negatively charged ions . Cations: Positively charged ions . Osmosis: The movement of water down a concentration gradient across a semipermeable membrane . Osmotic Pressure: The pull of a solution according to the concentration; amount of pressure required to stop osmotic flow of water . Hydrostatic Pressure: The force within a fluid compartment and major force that pushes water out of the vascular system at the capillary level . Plasma Expanders: Stay in the vascular space and increase osmotic pressure . MASTER IV THERAPY & BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS CVAD (Central Venous Access Device): Catheters placed in large blood vessels for patients who require frequent or specific access. Three methods include centrally inserted catheters, peripherally inserted catheters, and implanted infusion ports. Major disadvantage is increased risk of systemic infection. Nurse management includes assessment, dressing change, cleansing, injection cap changes, and maintenance of catheter patency . Blood Transfusion Reaction Signs: First signs of a reaction to blood product include restlessness, shortness of breath, rash, and vital sign changes . First Action for Blood Transfusion Reaction: STOP the transfusion immediately (do NOT remove it) . LPN Scope of Practice - Blood: An LPN cannot initiate blood transfusion but can verify things and stop the blood if a reaction is suspected . Albumin as Blood Expander: Albumin is a blood expander that can cause pulmonary edema and increase cardiac output (increase BP). There is NO risk for transmitting hepatitis from albumin, as it acts as a transport for the protein . Packed RBC Indications: Patient who needs packed red blood cells typically presents with bright red emesis, heart rate of 120 (high pulse low BP), and Hgb of 7.8 (Hgb under 9 indicates patient being unstable) . Biggest Risk of Packed RBCs: Fluid volume overload. A 68-year-old with history of CHF is at greatest risk . Universal Donor: O negative (O-) . Universal Recipient: AB positive . IV Insertion - Skin Preparation: Chlorhexidine is the preferred method to clean a site or hub (lasts 24 hours). Site should be scrubbed for 30 seconds; hub for 15 seconds . IV Insertion - Gauge for Blood Donation: 16-18 gauge needle . IV Insertion - Vein Selection: Selecting a vein keeping in mind the type of fluids being inserted. When selecting the correct vein for a peripheral IV, consider the situation, veins, and drug going into the vein . IV Insertion - Skin Tension: Pull skin taut when inserting needle . IV Stopcocks: Four-way intersection used when IV fluids are compatible. One or both lines can run into the patient, either alone or combined. Controls the direction of flow of an infusate. High contamination chances . Phlebitis Signs: Red, warm skin with a raised, rope-feeling vein. Remove IV, save catheter . Infiltration Signs: Cool, taut skin and edema at the site . MRSA Precautions: Gloves and gown . Patient with Burns: Use lactated ringers . PICC Line Termination Point: Superior Vena Cava . Air Embolism Intervention: Turn patient on left lateral Trendelenburg position . PCA Pump Safety: PCA pumps are only to be pushed by the patient, NOT by family members . LPN IV Scope - Age Restriction: The LPN may administer IV therapy only to patients 18 years and older . LPN IV Insertion Sites: The LPN may insert a peripheral IV in the hand, forearm, and antecubital space. The IV catheter must be 3 inches or less . LPN Can Hang: The LPN can hang first and continue to hang bags of isotonic, hypertonic, and hypotonic solutions; can hang first and continue to hang bags of antibiotics; can hang the second bag of vitamins/electrolytes; and can stop and monitor for signs of infection with blood/PCA . LPN Pediatric Scope: An LPN can check vitals, obtain cultures, give IM injections, give suppositories, give oral medications, and stop the IV if complications occur. They CANNOT start an IV on a child (patient must be 18 or older) . IV Tubing - Macro vs Micro: Macro tubing delivers 10-20 gtts/mL; micro tubing delivers 60 gtts/mL . Primary Administration Set Change: Per INS standards, continuous administration sets are changed no more frequently than every 96 hours or immediately upon contamination . Glass Container Requirement: Glass containers require the vent to be opened for administration . Secondary Administration (Piggyback): Use secondary tubing (30-36 inches). Primary bag hangs lower; secondary bag hangs higher . Biopatch Application: "Blue to the sky" . MASTER NURSING FUNDAMENTALS & LEGAL CONCEPTS 2025 National Safety Goals for Hospitals: Identify patients correctly, identify patient safety risks, use medicines safely, use alarms safely, prevent infection, prevent mistakes in surgery, and improve communication . Risk Management: A process that centers on identification, analysis, treatment, and evaluation of real and potential hazards. Strategies include informed consent, analysis of unusual occurrence reports, systemic (root cause) analysis of serious adverse events (sentinel events), and comprehensive and thorough documentation . Informed Consent: Must be obtained before an invasive procedure. Must be voluntary, and the patient needs information to make decisions such as the procedure, its purpose, risks, benefits, and the potential serious or irreversible risks. There should always be adequate opportunity for the patient to ask questions and convey concerns. Consent can also be given by conduct . Sentinel Event: Death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm where intervention is needed to sustain life. Most frequently reviewed sentinel event categories include falls, unintended retention of a foreign body, wrong patient/site/procedure, delay in treatment, suicide, and operative/postoperative complications . Malpractice: A form of negligence with any professional misconduct. The four elements of a malpractice claim are: Duty, Breach of Duty, Injury, and Causation . Ethical Principles: Autonomy: Right to self-determination and independence Beneficence: Doing good for patients Nonmaleficence: Doing no harm to patients Veracity: Truthfulness Fidelity: Obligation to be faithful (do what you say you will do) Justice: Obligation to be fair to all patients/people Nursing Process (ADPIE) : Assessment, Nursing Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation. The LPN can collect subjective and objective data to contribute to the patient's care plan. The RN creates the original care plan. LPNs can carry out the nursing care plan at the direction of the RN . LPN Care Direction: LPN care must be directed by the RN, PA, physician, dentist, podiatrist, optometrist, or chiropractor . Tort: A private wrong, by act or omission . MASTER ACID-BASE BALANCE Respiratory Acidosis Lab Values: pH less than 7.35, CO2 greater than 45 . Respiratory Alkalosis Lab Values: pH greater than 7.45, CO2 less than 35 . Metabolic Acidosis Lab Values: pH less than 7.35, bicarb less than 22 mEq/L . Metabolic Alkalosis Lab Values: pH greater than 7.45, bicarb greater than 26 mEq/L . Fully Compensated: pH normal, PaCO2 and HCO3 abnormal . Partially Compensated: pH abnormal, PaCO2 and HCO3 abnormal . Not Compensated: pH abnormal, PaCO2 OR HCO3 normal . MASTER ADDITIONAL LABORATORY VALUES BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) : 10-20 mg/dL . Creatinine: 0.5-1.0 mg/dL . Platelets: 150,000-400,000/mm³ . Hemoglobin: 12-18 g/dL . INR: 0.8-1.0 (therapeutic INR 2-3) . BNP (Brain Natriuretic Peptide) : Less than 100 . Albumin: 3.5-5.0 g/dL . Urine Specific Gravity: 1.001-1.035 . WBC (White Blood Cell Count) : 5,000-10,000 . Causes of Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) : Vomiting, diarrhea, burns, hemorrhage, drainage from NG tube suction, fistulas and tubes, diaphoresis (sweating), tachypnea, not enough fluid intake, third-space fluid shift, NPO status, diabetes insipidus . FVD Symptoms: Tenting, tachycardia, hypotension, narrow pulse pressure, weight loss, flat vein when in supine position, dry mucous membranes, BUN greater than 20, hemoglobin and hematocrit elevation, urine specific gravity 1.030 . Each question includes detailed rationales explaining the "why" behind every correct answer, reinforcing clinical judgment for NURS 172 Exam 3 success and nursing program advancement. DOCUMENT ACCESS: This resource is available as an instant digital download (PDF) immediately upon purchase. Fully text-searchable, printable, and accessible anytime through your user account. Trusted by thousands of Hondros nursing students for NURS 172 Exam 3 success and NCLEX readiness . 4. VERTICAL KEYWORDS / TAGS NURS 172 Exam 3 2026 Hondros College Hondros Nursing Fundamentals Medical-Surgical Exam Mental Health Nursing Fluid and Electrolyte Balance Multiple Choice and Select-All-That-Apply Questions with Verified Rationales Hondros NUR 172 Test Bank Get HighScore NURS 172 Exam 3 PTSD Pharmacotherapy Antidepressants First-Line Generalized Anxiety Disorder GAD Symptoms Fatigue Insomnia Irritability Phobia Behavioral Therapies Flooding Systematic Desensitization Body Dysmorphic Disorder Mirror Checking Excessive Grooming Skin Picking Trauma Definition Distressing Experience Long-Lasting Psychological Effects Anxiolytics Minor Tranquilizers Antianxiety Drugs Denial Rationalization Projection Defense Mechanisms Alcohol Blackout Memory Impairment Delirium Tremens Tachycardia Hallucinations Seizures Alcohol Withdrawal Medications Lorazepam Chlordiazepoxide Diazepam Thiamine Dehydration Hematocrit 56% Sodium 152 Fluid Spacing First Second Third Space Edema Burns Hypertonic Solution Cell Shrink BP Increase Hypotonic Solution Cell Swell BP Decrease Isotonic Solution No Cell Volume Change Normal Saline D5W Lactated Ringers Electrolyte Normal Ranges Potassium 3.5-5.0 Magnesium 1.5-2.5 Sodium 135-145 Calcium 8.6-10.2 Active Transport Anions Cations Osmosis Osmotic Pressure Hydrostatic Pressure Central Venous Access Device CVAD Infection Risk Blood Transfusion Reaction Restlessness SOB Rash STOP Transfusion First Albumin Blood Expander No Hepatitis Risk Packed RBC Indication Hgb 7.8 Fluid Volume Overload Risk CHF Universal Donor O Negative Universal Recipient AB Positive Chlorhexidine IV Site Cleaning 30 Seconds Site 15 Seconds Hub 16-18 Gauge Blood Donation IV Stopcock 4-Way Intersection High Contamination Phlebitis Red Warm Rope Vein Infiltration Cool Taut Skin Edema MRSA Precautions Gloves Gown Air Embolism Left Lateral Trendelenburg PCA Pump Patient Only No Family LPN IV Scope 18+ Years Antecubital Hand Forearm Catheter 3 Inches or Less LPN Hang Isotonic Hypertonic Hypotonic Antibiotics Vitamins/Electrolytes Primary Administration Set Change Every 96 Hours INS Standard Macro Tubing 10-20 gtts/mL Micro Tubing 60 gtts/mL Piggyback Secondary Tubing 30-36 Inches Primary Lower Secondary Higher Biopatch Blue to the Sky

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NURS 172 Exam 3 2026 | Hondros College | Nursing
Fundamentals, Medical-Surgical Nursing, Mental
Health, Fluid & Electrolyte Balance | Multiple Choice,
Select-All-That-Apply with Rationales

Exam Structure:

Subject: Nursing Fundamentals / Medical-Surgical Nursing / Mental Health / Fluid &

Electrolyte Balance

Source: NURS 172 Exam 3 – Hondros College – 2026

Format: Multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply, and open-ended questions with Correct

Answers and rationales




1. A client diagnosed with PTSD states, "Why did my doctor prescribe
an antidepressant rather than an antianxiety drug for me?" Which of
the following are the most appropriate nursing responses? (Select 3
that apply.)
A. "Antidepressants are now considered first-line treatment choice for
PTSD."
B. "There have been no controlled studies on the effect of antianxiety drugs
on PTSD."
C. "Because of their addictive properties, antianxiety drugs are less
desirable."
D. "Antidepressants work faster than antianxiety medications."
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale:
1. SSRIs and SNRIs are first-line pharmacotherapy for PTSD per clinical
guidelines.
2. Benzodiazepines lack controlled studies supporting their efficacy in PTSD
and may worsen outcomes.

, 2|Page


3. Benzodiazepines carry significant risk of dependence and tolerance,
making them less desirable for long-term PTSD management.

2. A college student has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety
disorder (GAD). Which of the following symptoms should a campus
nurse expect this client to exhibit?
A. Fatigue
B. Insomnia
C. Irritability
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Rationale:
1. GAD is characterized by chronic, excessive worry accompanied by physical
symptoms.
2. Fatigue results from constant muscle tension and sleep disturbance.
3. Insomnia is common due to racing thoughts and hyperarousal.
4. Irritability reflects the chronic stress and frustration associated with
unrelenting worry.

3. A nurse is discussing treatment options with a client whose life has
been negatively impacted by claustrophobia. Which of the following
commonly used behavioral therapies for phobias should the nurse
explain to the client?
A. Imploding (flooding)
B. Systematic desensitization
C. Aversion therapy
D. Both A and B
Correct Answer: D. Both A and B
Rationale:
1. Systematic desensitization uses gradual exposure paired with relaxation
techniques.
2. Implosion (flooding) exposes the client to the most feared situation
immediately.
3. Both are evidence-based behavioral therapies for specific phobias.

, 3|Page


4. After reporting a sexual assault, a female soldier is diagnosed with a
personality disorder. Which of the following consequences may
result?
A. Stigma of a psychiatric diagnosis
B. Service discharge
C. Loss of service-related disability compensation
D. Loss of health-care benefits
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E. All of the above
Rationale:
1. Psychiatric diagnoses carry stigma that can affect personal and
professional relationships.
2. Personality disorders may lead to administrative or medical discharge from
military service.
3. Compensation and benefits may be denied if the condition is considered
pre-existing or not service-connected.

5. An attractive female client presents with high anxiety levels because
of her belief that her facial features are large and grotesque. Body
dysmorphic disorder (BDD) is suspected. Which of the following
additional symptoms would support this diagnosis? (Select 3 that
apply.)
A. Mirror checking
B. Excessive grooming
C. Skin picking
D. Hoarding
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale:
1. Mirror checking is a compulsive behavior to repeatedly assess the perceived
defect.
2. Excessive grooming (hair styling, makeup application) aims to hide or
correct the perceived flaw.
3. Skin picking is a body-focused repetitive behavior associated with BDD.

6. An extremely distressing experience that causes severe emotional
shock and may have long-lasting psychological effects is called:
Correct Answer: Trauma

, 4|Page


Rationale:
1. Trauma involves exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or
sexual violence.
2. Traumatic events overwhelm an individual's ability to cope.
3. Trauma can lead to PTSD, acute stress disorder, or adjustment disorders.

7. Antianxiety drugs are also called ______ and minor tranquilizers.
Correct Answer: Anxiolytics
Rationale:
1. Anxiolytics are medications that reduce anxiety.
2. Examples include benzodiazepines (lorazepam, alprazolam) and buspirone.
3. They are also referred to as minor tranquilizers (contrasted with major
tranquilizers/antipsychotics).

8. Traits associated with schizoid, obsessive-compulsive, and ______
personality disorders are commonly seen in clients with the diagnosis
of body dysmorphic disorder.
Correct Answer: Narcissistic
Rationale:
1. BDD shares features with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
(perfectionism, rigidity).
2. Schizoid traits (social detachment) and narcissistic traits (preoccupation
with appearance) may also co-occur.
3. The source indicates "narcissistic" as the Correct Answer.

9. Janet becomes panicky when she gets near a dog.
Correct Answer: Specific phobia
Rationale:
1. Specific phobia involves marked fear or anxiety about a specific object or
situation (animals).
2. The fear is out of proportion to the actual danger.
3. Exposure to the phobic stimulus (dog) provokes an immediate fear
response.

10. Patricia weighs and measures her food. Long after everyone else
has finished eating, she is still calculating the caloric value of her food
and remeasuring her portion.

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