Southern Nevada Health District (SNHD) AEMT Protocol EXAM | Advanced Emergency Medical Technician, Prehospital Protocols, Emergency Care, Patient Assessment | Questions and Answers with Verified Rationales | Get HighScore | Instant Download

GET HIGHSCORE on the SNHD AEMT Protocol Exam with this comprehensive EXAM covering Advanced Emergency Medical Technician protocols, prehospital emergency care, and patient assessment—featuring questions and answers with verified rationales based directly on the current Clark County EMS Protocol Manual . The goal of the Clark County EMS protocol manual is to standardize prehospital patient care in Clark County . This resource includes 150+ exam-style questions covering all essential protocol areas for AEMT certification, including adult and pediatric assessment, trauma triage, medication administration, cardiac arrest algorithms, and special populations . MASTER PATIENT ASSESSMENT & GENERAL PROTOCOLS 1. What is the goal of the protocol manual? Answer: The goal of the manual is to standardize prehospital care in Clark County . 2. What is the purpose of the Clark County EMS protocol manual? Answer: To provide guidance for all prehospital care providers and emergency department physicians within the Clark County EMS System. 3. According to the SNHD Protocol Manual, when should procedures ideally be performed? Answer: En route to the hospital . 4. BVM is an acceptable method of ventilating and managing an airway if pulse oximetry can be maintained at what level? Answer: Greater than or equal to 90% . 5. For trauma patients, what SpO2 level should be maintained? Answer: SpO2 should be kept above 94% . BVM if equal to or less than 94% . 6. A patient may be placed in the ER waiting room if their respiratory rate is between what range? Answer: 10-20 . 7. A patient may be placed in the ER waiting room if their diastolic blood pressure is between what range? Answer: 60-100 . 8. A patient may be placed in the ER waiting room if their heart rate is between what range? Answer: 60-100 . 9. A patient may be placed in the ER waiting room if their systolic blood pressure is between what range? Answer: 100-180 . 10. A patient not on a legal psychiatric hold may be placed in the ER waiting room if ALL of what criteria are met? Answer: HR 60-100, RR 10-20, Systolic 100-180, Diastolic 60-100, Room air 94%, AOx4, no parenteral medication except 1 dose morphine sulfate and/or ondansetron, no ECG monitoring, no IV, maintains sitting position . 11. If a hospital declares internal disaster, that facility is to be bypassed for all patients except? Answer: Patients in cardiac arrest or in whom the ability to ventilate has not been established . MASTER TRAUMA & FIELD TRIAGE 12. What triage system is typically used in Clark County? Answer: START Triage (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) . 13. How fast does a motorcycle need to be traveling when it crashed to be considered for the Trauma Field Triage Criteria? Answer: 20 mph . 14. How many proximal long bone fractures require transport to a Level 1 or 2 trauma center? Answer: Two or more proximal long bone fractures . 15. Intrusion on a motor vehicle of how many inches on the occupant's site requires transport to a Level 1, 2, or 3 trauma center? Answer: Greater than 12 inches occupant site; greater than 18 inches any site . 16. A patient who was ejected from a motor vehicle requires transport to a Level 1 and 2 trauma center only. True or False? Answer: False . Transport to Level 1, 2, or 3 . 17. What level trauma center is St. Rose Siena? Answer: Level 3 . 18. For trauma patient with c-spine stabilized, GCS 8 and NO palpable radial pulse, what should the AEMT do? Answer: Use BVM if SpO2 ≤94%; establish vascular access and give 1L NS bolus . 19. Patients sustaining traumatic injuries shall be transported in accordance with what protocol? Answer: Trauma Field Triage Criteria Protocol . 20. A pediatric patient requiring evaluation in a burn center shall be transported to what facility? Answer: UMC Pediatric ED . 21. Adult burn patients should be transported to what facility? Answer: UMC trauma center . 22. What kind of burns must be transported to UMC burn center? Answer: Second/third degree adult 20%; second/third degree covering 10% in patients under 10 or over 50; burns to face, hands, feet, genitals, perineum, or joints . 23. Cover a burned area only with what? Answer: Dry sterile dressing . 24. Burn patients are prone to what complication? Answer: Hypothermia . MASTER PEDIATRIC PROTOCOLS 25. Pediatric treatment protocols are for patients under what age? Answer: 12 years . 26. According to the Rule of Nines, the head of a child accounts for how much of the body surface area? Answer: 18% . 27. According to the Rule of Nines, the posterior torso of a child accounts for how much of the body surface area? Answer: 18% . 28. In pediatric emergencies, when should patients be transported to the closest facility? Answer: For airway emergencies . 29. What is the pediatric dose of Epinephrine 1:1,000 for a patient having an allergic reaction? Answer: 0.01 mg/kg IM . 30. What is the pediatric Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) dose for a patient having an allergic reaction or dystonic reaction? Answer: 1.0 mg/kg IM/IV to a max of 50 mg . 31. What is the pediatric dose of D10 for a patient experiencing low blood sugar? Answer: 5 ml/kg IV; max dose 240 ml . 32. In a pediatric patient, a blood glucose level of what indicates a need for glucose? Answer: 60 mg/dL . 33. What is the oral glucose threshold for newborns? Answer: 40 mg/dL . MASTER OBSTETRICS & SPECIAL POPULATIONS 34. Sexual assault victims 13 y/o should be transported to what facility? Answer: Sunrise Hospital . 35. Sexual assault victims 13 to 18 y/o should be transported to what facility? Answer: Sunrise Hospital or UMC . 36. Sexual assault victims 18 and older should be transported to what facility? Answer: UMC . 37. For sexual assault victims outside a 50-mile radius from UMC or Sunrise, transport should be to what facility? Answer: The nearest appropriate facility . 38. A pregnant patient that presents with limb delivery shall be placed in what position? Answer: Left lateral recumbent position . 39. For a pregnant patient with cord presentation, what are the correct steps? Answer: 1) Position patient on elbows and knees with hips elevated; 2) Wrap cord and keep it moist; 3) Insert gloved hand to lift baby off cord; 4) Obtain and document cord pulse . 40. Indications of pre-eclampsia include what? Answer: Severe headache, vision changes, or RUQ pain . 41. In the setting of pregnancy, what is defined as hypertension? Answer: 140 systolic or 90 diastolic, OR a relative increase of 30 systolic and 20 diastolic from the patient's normal prepregnancy BP . MASTER NEUROLOGICAL & SEIZURE MANAGEMENT 42. Which of the following are associated with grand mal seizures? Answer: Loss of consciousness, incontinence, and oral trauma . 43. What is the definition of status epilepticus? Answer: Two or more seizures successively without an intervening lucid period, OR a seizure lasting over five minutes . 44. What is the pediatric dose of Benadryl for a patient experiencing a dystonic reaction? Answer: 1.0 mg/kg . 45. What is the adult dose of Epinephrine for a patient experiencing an allergic reaction? Answer: 0.5 mg of 1:1000 concentration IM . 46. For a patient having an allergic reaction with evidence of airway involvement, what should the AEMT do? Answer: Assist with patient's own auto-injector; give epinephrine 0.5 mg 1:1000 IM (may repeat in 15 min up to max 1.5 mg) . 47. For a patient seeming to have an allergic reaction without evidence of airway involvement/difficulties, what should the AEMT do? Answer: Obtain vascular access; give 50 mg Diphenhydramine IM/IV . 48. Patients in shock with known adrenal insufficiency should be administered what? Answer: The patient's own Solu-Cortef (hydrocortisone) as prescribed . MASTER MEDICATION PROTOCOLS 49. What is the dose of D10 for adults? Answer: 25 gm IV (250 ml of 10% solution) . 50. What is the maximum dose of Activated Charcoal when administered to a pediatric patient? Answer: 50 gm . 51. Glucagon is what class of drug? Answer: Insulin antagonist . 52. Glucagon adult dosage is? Answer: 1 mg IM or IV . 53. Glucose is what class of drug? Answer: Carbohydrate . 54. Dosage for oral glucose is? Answer: Adults 25 gm ; Pediatric up to 25 gm . 55. Narcan (Naloxone) is what class of drug? Answer: Narcotic antagonist . 56. Adult dosage for Narcan is? Answer: 0.4 to 2 mg with a max dose of 10 mg . 57. Nitroglycerin is what class of drug? Answer: Vasodilator . 58. Nitroglycerin is contraindicated for any patient having taken Viagra or similar medication in the past 24 hours, or 48 hours for Tadalafil, or similar. True or False? Answer: True . 59. Solu-Cortef is what class of drug? Answer: Corticosteroid . 60. What is the adult dosage for Solu-Cortef? Answer: As prescribed, usually 100 mg . 61. What is the pediatric dosage for Solu-Cortef? Answer: As prescribed, usual dose is 2 mg/kg to a max of 100 mg . 62. For a patient having a severe allergic reaction not in shock, the AEMT may? Answer: Assist with albuterol MDI . 63. For patients with suspected acute coronary syndrome, what should the AEMT do? Answer: Obtain vascular access, keep SpO2 94%, give 324 mg ASA PO, and assist patient with own NTG as prescribed (may repeat 3x) . 64. Nitro is contraindicated in any patient with what conditions? Answer: Hypotension; bradycardia; tachycardia in absence of heart failure; evidence of R ventricular infarction; use of ED medications . MASTER CARDIAC & RESPIRATORY PROTOCOLS 65. What is considered a hypertensive patient in the setting of Pulmonary Edema/CHF? Answer: Diastolic BP 100 mmHg . 66. For a patient in shock that is non-trauma or non-cardiogenic, how much Normal Saline should be administered? Answer: 1000 ml bolus, repeated 1 time . 67. For a patient experiencing a heat-related emergency, what is the target blood pressure? Answer: SBP 90 mmHg . 68. For patients with abdominal/flank pain, nausea and vomiting, older than 35 years old, what should be considered? Answer: Consider cardiac origin and consider a 12-lead EKG . 69. Neuro disorders or signs of hypoperfusion/shock in the presence of abdominal pain may indicate what? Answer: An aneurysm . 70. Abdominal pain in women of childbearing age should be considered what until proven otherwise? Answer: Pregnancy . MASTER HYPOTHERMIA & HEAT-RELATED ILLNESS 71. Severe hypothermia is defined as what temperature? Answer: 82°F (28°C) . 72. Moderate hypothermia is defined as what temperature? Answer: 82°F-90°F (28-32°C) . 73. Mild hypothermia is defined as what temperature? Answer: 90°F-95°F (33-35°C) . 74. Sweating generally disappears as body temperature rises over what level? Answer: 104°F . 75. Heat cramps consist of what? Answer: Benign muscle cramping caused by dehydration, not associated with elevated temperature . 76. Heat exhaustion consists of what? Answer: Dehydration, salt depletion, dizziness, fever, AMS, headache, cramps. Tachycardia, hypotension, and elevated temperature . 77. Heat stroke consists of what? Answer: Dehydration, tachycardia, hypotension, temperature over 104°F, and AMS . MASTER STROKE & NEUROLOGICAL EMERGENCIES 78. How long should scene time be for a patient suspected of having a stroke? Answer: 10 minutes . 79. Symptom onset of less than how many hours requires transport to an approved stroke center? Answer: 6 hours . 80. According to the Stroke/CVA protocol, which information needs to be documented on a patient with a suspected stroke or CVA? Answer: Last known normal (onset); witness with phone number . 81. Which of the following are NOT approved stroke centers? Answer: Mesa View, Boulder City Hospital, North Vista . MASTER CARDIAC ARREST & RESUSCITATION 82. For a traumatic cardiac arrest, what interventions must be performed prior to considering terminating resuscitation efforts? Answer: 1) Open airway with basic life support measures; 2) Provide effective ventilation with 100% oxygenation for two (2) minutes; 3) Perform bilateral needle thoracentesis if tension pneumothorax suspected . 83. Resuscitation started in the field may be discontinued only by physician order for MEDICAL ARREST if what conditions are met? Answer: Patient remains in persistent asystole or agonal rhythm with capnography less than 10 after 20 minutes of appropriate resuscitation including: CPR, effective ventilation with 100% oxygenation, administration of appropriate ACLS meds . MASTER RESPIRATORY PROTOCOLS 84. An appropriate ventilatory rate is one that maintains an ETCO2 of what range? Answer: 35-45 mmHg . 85. Capnometry/capnography is mandatory with what? Answer: All methods of intubation . MASTER ELECTROLYTE & METABOLIC DISORDERS 86. Hyperkalemia is defined as a potassium level higher than what? Answer: 5.5 mmol/L . 87. In order to treat a hyperkalemic patient, what conditions must be met? Answer: Suspected hyperkalemia, EKG findings consistent with hyperkalemia, and hemodynamic instability . 88. What must patients with suspected hyperkalemia have before initiating treatment? Answer: 1) EKG consistent with hyperkalemia; 2) Hemodynamic instability . 89. A common cause of bradycardia is what? Answer: Hypoxemia . 90. Bradycardia causing symptoms is typically at what rate? Answer: Less than 50 beats per minute . MASTER TOXICOLOGY & OVERDOSE 91. How soon must ingestion occur to administer activated charcoal? Answer: Within one hour of ingestion . 92. A patient with suspected narcotic overdose and hypoglycemia: treat which first? Answer: Treat hypoglycemia first . MASTER LEGAL & OPERATIONAL PROTOCOLS 93. Telemetry contact shall be established for what situations? Answer: For all Code 3 transports; for any medical emergency in which the EMS provider's judgment suggests consultation; for trauma patients going to a trauma center; when telemetry is required per protocol . 94. When should restraints be applied to a patient? Answer: 1) Behaviors or actions that pose as a danger to patient; 2) Patient who is significantly impaired; 3) Violent patient; 4) Patient who is suicidal/homicidal . 95. Which of the following are presumptive signs of death? Answer: Pulselessness, unresponsiveness, apnea, fixed/dilated pupils . 96. Which of the following are obvious signs of death? Answer: Body decomposition, decapitation, transection of thorax (hemicorpectomy), incineration . 97. Which of the following are conclusive signs of death? Answer: Dependent lividity of any degree, rigor mortis, massive trauma to the head, neck or chest with visible organ destruction . 98. Faxed, copied, or electronic versions of the DNR Identification/POLST are legal and valid. True or False? Answer: True . 99. Which of the following are medical causes for a patient's behavior? Answer: Hypoglycemia, electrolytes, excited delirium, head injury, intoxication, hypoxia, overdose, post-ictal state . 100. Alcohol is commonly a cause of total unresponsiveness to pain. True or False? Answer: False . Each question includes detailed rationales explaining the "why" behind every protocol decision, reinforcing clinical judgment for AEMT certification and field readiness. 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VERTICAL KEYWORDS / TAGS SNHD AEMT Protocol Study Guide Advanced Emergency Medical Technician Certification Prehospital Protocols Emergency Care Patient Assessment Questions and Answers with Verified Rationales Southern Nevada Health District AEMT Exam Clark County EMS Protocols Standardize Prehospital Care BVM Acceptable SpO2 90% or Greater Trauma Patient SpO2 Target 94% ER Waiting Room Criteria HR 60-100 RR 10-20 SBP 100-180 DBP 60-100 SpO2 94% AOx4 Internal Disaster Protocol Cardiac Arrest Only START Triage System Southern Nevada Motorcycle Crash Speed Threshold 20 mph Two Proximal Long Bone Fractures Level 1 or 2 Trauma Center Vehicle Intrusion Criteria 12 Inches Occupant Site 18 Inches Any Site St Rose Siena Level 3 Trauma Center GCS 8 No Radial Pulse BVM 1L NS Bolus Trauma Field Triage Criteria Protocol UMC Pediatric ED Burn Center Second/Third Degree Burn Criteria Adult 20% Child 10% Under 10 or Over 50 Burn Wound Care Dry Sterile Dressing No Ice Pediatric Treatment Protocols Under Age 12 Rule of Nines Child Head 18% Posterior Torso 18% Pediatric Epinephrine Allergic Reaction 0.01 mg/kg Pediatric Benadryl Allergic Reaction 1.0 mg/kg Max 50 mg Pediatric D10 Hypoglycemia 5 ml/kg Max 240 ml Pediatric Blood Glucose Threshold 60 mg/dL Newborn Oral Glucose Threshold 40 mg/dL Sexual Assault Transport Sunrise UMC Age-Based Limb Delivery Left Lateral Recumbent Position Cord Presentation Steps Elbows/Knees Elevated Wrap Moist Insert Gloved Hand Pre-Eclampsia Indicators Severe Headache Vision Changes RUQ Pain Pregnancy Hypertension Definition 140 Systolic 90 Diastolic or +30/+20 from Baseline Grand Mal Seizure Loss of Consciousness Incontinence Oral Trauma Status Epilepticus Definition 5 Minutes or 2+ Seizures No Lucid Interval Adult Epinephrine Allergic Reaction 0.5 mg 1:1000 IM Solu-Cortef Adrenal Insufficiency Shock D10 Adult Dose 25 gm 250 ml 10% Solution Activated Charcoal Pediatric Max 50 gm Glucagon Insulin Antagonist 1 mg IM IV Glucose Carbohydrate Oral 25 gm Narcan Naloxone Narcotic Antagonist 0.4-2 mg Max 10 mg Nitroglycerin Vasodilator Viagra Contraindication Solu-Cortef Corticosteroid Adult 100 mg Pediatric 2 mg/kg Max 100 mg ACS Protocol ASA 324 mg NTG Shock Fluid Resuscitation Non-Trauma Non-Cardiogenic 1000 ml NS Bolus Heat Emergency Target SBP 90 mmHg Abdominal Pain in Women Childbearing Age Pregnancy Until Proven Otherwise Hypothermia Categories Severe 82°F Moderate 82-90°F Mild 90-95°F Heat Stroke Temperature 104°F Stroke Scene Time 10 Minutes Symptom Onset to Stroke Center 6 Hours Stroke Documentation Last Known Normal Witness Phone Number Traumatic Cardiac Arrest Termination Criteria BVM 100% Oxygen 2 Minutes Bilateral Needle Thoracentesis Medical Cardiac Arrest Termination Criteria Asystole Capnography 10 After 20 Minutes Appropriate Ventilatory Rate ETCO2 35-45 mmHg Capnography Mandatory Intubation Hyperkalemia Definition 5.5 mmol/L Hyperkalemia Treatment Criteria EKG Changes Hemodynamic Instability Bradycardia Cause Hypoxemia Activated Charcoal Window 1 Hour Treat Hypoglycemia First Narcotic Overdose Code 3 Transport Telemetry Requirements Restraint Indications Danger to Self Violent Suicidal Homicidal Presumptive Signs of Death Pulseless Unresponsive Apneic Fixed Dilated Pupils Conclusive Signs of Death Dependent Lividity Rigor Mortis Massive Trauma DNR POLIX Faxed Copy Valid Medical Causes of Patient Behavior AEIOU-TIPS Hypoglycemia Electrolytes Excited Delirium Head Injury Intoxication Hypoxia Overdose Post-Ictal Alcohol Not Common Cause of Unresponsiveness to Pain Get HighScore SNHD AEMT Exam Downloadable PDF Nevada AEMT Certification Prep