Latest ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2026 NGN Exam
Prep | 180 Real Questions & Accurate Answers
with Clear Rationales to Pass
ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2026 NGN Exam
Comprehensive 180-Question Practice Exam
Section 1: Antepartum & Prenatal Care (Questions 1–30)
Question 1
A nurse is providing education to a client at 10 weeks of gestation. Which of the
following supplements should the nurse emphasize to help prevent neural tube defects?
A) Iron
B) Calcium
C) Folic acid
D) Vitamin D
Rationale: Folic acid is crucial in the first trimester for preventing neural tube defects
like spina bifida. The recommended dosage is 400–800 mcg daily. Iron is important for
preventing anemia, calcium for bone development, and vitamin D for calcium
absorption, but none prevent neural tube defects.
Question 2
A nurse is assessing a client at 35 weeks of gestation who reports a sudden gush of fluid
from the vagina. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A) Check the amniotic fluid for meconium
B) Perform a sterile vaginal exam
,C) Assess the fetal heart rate
D) Obtain a urine sample for protein
Rationale: A gush of fluid indicates rupture of membranes. The priority is to assess fetal
heart rate to ensure fetal well-being and detect potential cord prolapse or distress
immediately.
Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Heartburn after eating spicy foods
B) Dark red, painless vaginal bleeding
C) Increased urinary frequency
D) Leukorrhea without odor
Rationale: Dark red, painless bleeding is a classic sign of a threatened abortion or
subchorionic hemorrhage. Heartburn, urinary frequency, and leukorrhea are expected
discomforts of pregnancy.
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client at 10 weeks gestation. Which value requires
immediate intervention?
A) Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
B) Rubella titer < 1:8
C) White blood cell count 12,000/mm³
D) Hematocrit 34%
Rationale: A Rubella titer <1:8 indicates non-immunity. The client must be vaccinated
postpartum (avoid during pregnancy). Slight anemia and elevated WBCs are normal in
pregnancy.
,Question 5
A nurse is teaching a client about expected physiological changes during pregnancy.
Which statement indicates understanding?
A) "I will likely have a decrease in my metabolic rate."
B) "My blood pressure will decrease during the first trimester."
C) "My heart will increase in size, and my pulse will slow down."
D) "I will notice a white, odorless vaginal discharge."
Rationale: Leukorrhea (increased white, odorless discharge) is common due to
increased estrogen and vascularity. BP decreases in the second trimester, pulse
increases, and metabolic rate increases.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and reports nausea and vomiting. Which of
the following instructions should the nurse provide?
A) "Drink a full glass of water with each meal"
B) "Avoid eating between meals"
C) "You should eat some crackers before rising from bed in the morning"
D) "Lie down immediately after eating"
Rationale: Eating dry crackers before getting out of bed helps prevent morning sickness
by reducing gastric emptiness and stabilizing blood sugar.
Question 7
A nurse is planning care for a client who is pregnant and is Rh-negative. In which of the
following situations should the nurse administer Rh(D) Immune Globulin?
A) At 28 weeks of gestation
B) After chorionic villus sampling
C) Before an amniocentesis
D) Following a non-stress test
Rationale: Rh(D) Immune Globulin is routinely administered at 28 weeks of gestation to
prevent sensitization in Rh-negative pregnant clients.
, Question 8
A nurse is providing education to a client about Group B Streptococcus (GBS) testing. At
which gestational age should the client expect to have this test performed?
A) 24–28 weeks
B) 30–32 weeks
C) 35–37 weeks
D) 38–40 weeks
Rationale: GBS culture is routinely obtained at 35–37 weeks of gestation to screen for
colonization and guide intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis.
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a client at 24 weeks gestation who presents with painless vaginal
bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Placenta previa
C) Preterm labor
D) Uterine rupture
Rationale: Painless vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester is characteristic of
placenta previa, where the placenta implants over the cervical os. Abruptio placentae
typically presents with painful bleeding.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A) Ketones in the urine
B) Nausea lasting more than 12 hours
C) Weight loss of 2 pounds
D) Heart rate of 100/min
Prep | 180 Real Questions & Accurate Answers
with Clear Rationales to Pass
ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2026 NGN Exam
Comprehensive 180-Question Practice Exam
Section 1: Antepartum & Prenatal Care (Questions 1–30)
Question 1
A nurse is providing education to a client at 10 weeks of gestation. Which of the
following supplements should the nurse emphasize to help prevent neural tube defects?
A) Iron
B) Calcium
C) Folic acid
D) Vitamin D
Rationale: Folic acid is crucial in the first trimester for preventing neural tube defects
like spina bifida. The recommended dosage is 400–800 mcg daily. Iron is important for
preventing anemia, calcium for bone development, and vitamin D for calcium
absorption, but none prevent neural tube defects.
Question 2
A nurse is assessing a client at 35 weeks of gestation who reports a sudden gush of fluid
from the vagina. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A) Check the amniotic fluid for meconium
B) Perform a sterile vaginal exam
,C) Assess the fetal heart rate
D) Obtain a urine sample for protein
Rationale: A gush of fluid indicates rupture of membranes. The priority is to assess fetal
heart rate to ensure fetal well-being and detect potential cord prolapse or distress
immediately.
Question 3
A nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Heartburn after eating spicy foods
B) Dark red, painless vaginal bleeding
C) Increased urinary frequency
D) Leukorrhea without odor
Rationale: Dark red, painless bleeding is a classic sign of a threatened abortion or
subchorionic hemorrhage. Heartburn, urinary frequency, and leukorrhea are expected
discomforts of pregnancy.
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client at 10 weeks gestation. Which value requires
immediate intervention?
A) Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
B) Rubella titer < 1:8
C) White blood cell count 12,000/mm³
D) Hematocrit 34%
Rationale: A Rubella titer <1:8 indicates non-immunity. The client must be vaccinated
postpartum (avoid during pregnancy). Slight anemia and elevated WBCs are normal in
pregnancy.
,Question 5
A nurse is teaching a client about expected physiological changes during pregnancy.
Which statement indicates understanding?
A) "I will likely have a decrease in my metabolic rate."
B) "My blood pressure will decrease during the first trimester."
C) "My heart will increase in size, and my pulse will slow down."
D) "I will notice a white, odorless vaginal discharge."
Rationale: Leukorrhea (increased white, odorless discharge) is common due to
increased estrogen and vascularity. BP decreases in the second trimester, pulse
increases, and metabolic rate increases.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and reports nausea and vomiting. Which of
the following instructions should the nurse provide?
A) "Drink a full glass of water with each meal"
B) "Avoid eating between meals"
C) "You should eat some crackers before rising from bed in the morning"
D) "Lie down immediately after eating"
Rationale: Eating dry crackers before getting out of bed helps prevent morning sickness
by reducing gastric emptiness and stabilizing blood sugar.
Question 7
A nurse is planning care for a client who is pregnant and is Rh-negative. In which of the
following situations should the nurse administer Rh(D) Immune Globulin?
A) At 28 weeks of gestation
B) After chorionic villus sampling
C) Before an amniocentesis
D) Following a non-stress test
Rationale: Rh(D) Immune Globulin is routinely administered at 28 weeks of gestation to
prevent sensitization in Rh-negative pregnant clients.
, Question 8
A nurse is providing education to a client about Group B Streptococcus (GBS) testing. At
which gestational age should the client expect to have this test performed?
A) 24–28 weeks
B) 30–32 weeks
C) 35–37 weeks
D) 38–40 weeks
Rationale: GBS culture is routinely obtained at 35–37 weeks of gestation to screen for
colonization and guide intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis.
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a client at 24 weeks gestation who presents with painless vaginal
bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Placenta previa
C) Preterm labor
D) Uterine rupture
Rationale: Painless vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester is characteristic of
placenta previa, where the placenta implants over the cervical os. Abruptio placentae
typically presents with painful bleeding.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A) Ketones in the urine
B) Nausea lasting more than 12 hours
C) Weight loss of 2 pounds
D) Heart rate of 100/min
