NR 224 Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 8 Study Guide 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. Which of the following is an early clinical sign of hypoxia?
A. Cyanosis
B. Bradypnea
C. Restlessness
D. Clubbing of fingers
Answer: C
Rationale: Restlessness and anxiety are early signs of hypoxia due to the brain’s sensitivity
to low oxygen levels; cyanosis and clubbing are late signs.
2. When administering oxygen via a nasal cannula, what is the maximum
recommended flow rate?
A. 2 L/min
B. 6 L/min
C. 10 L/min
D. 15 L/min
Answer: B
Rationale: The maximum flow rate for a nasal cannula is typically 6 L/min; rates higher
than this can dry out the mucosa and do not significantly increase inspired oxygen
concentration.
,3. What is the primary purpose of using an incentive spirometer?
A. To measure forced expiratory volume
B. To deliver bronchodilators into the lungs
C. To promote deep breathing and prevent atelectasis
D. To decrease the work of breathing during exercise
Answer: C
Rationale: Incentive spirometry encourages voluntary deep breathing by providing visual
feedback, which helps expand alveoli and prevent lung collapse (atelectasis).
4. A patient with a history of COPD is receiving oxygen. Why must the nurse be
cautious about high-flow oxygen delivery?
A. It may suppress the respiratory drive
B. It could lead to pneumothorax
C. It may cause oxygen toxicity
D. It can cause metabolic alkalosis
Answer: A
Rationale: In some COPD patients, the respiratory drive is triggered by low oxygen levels
(hypoxic drive) rather than high CO2; too much oxygen can suppress this drive.
5. Which nursing intervention is most effective for a patient with thick,
tenacious secretions?
A. Administering cough suppressants
B. Encouraging fluid intake to 2500 mL/day
C. Performing tracheal suctioning every hour
D. Placing the patient in a supine position
Answer: B
Rationale: Hydration helps liquefy secretions, making them easier to expectorate.
Suppressants are contraindicated if secretions need to be cleared.
, 6. The nurse observes a patient’s breathing pattern is deep and rapid, often
associated with metabolic acidosis. This is known as:
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C. Biot’s respirations
D. Apnea
Answer: A
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that the body uses to blow off
excess CO2 to compensate for metabolic acidosis.
7. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of hypokalemia?
A. Positive Chvostek’s sign
B. Peaked T waves on an ECG
C. Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
D. Hypertension and bounding pulses
Answer: C
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) affects muscle contraction and cardiac
conduction, leading to weakness and arrhythmias. Peaked T waves are seen in
hyperkalemia.
8. A patient has an IV site that is cool to the touch, swollen, and painful. The
nurse suspects:
A. Phlebitis
B. Thrombosis
C. Infection
D. Infiltration
Answer: D
Rationale: Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into surrounding tissue, causing coolness,
swelling, and discomfort. Phlebitis is characterized by heat and redness.
|Chamberlain College
1. Which of the following is an early clinical sign of hypoxia?
A. Cyanosis
B. Bradypnea
C. Restlessness
D. Clubbing of fingers
Answer: C
Rationale: Restlessness and anxiety are early signs of hypoxia due to the brain’s sensitivity
to low oxygen levels; cyanosis and clubbing are late signs.
2. When administering oxygen via a nasal cannula, what is the maximum
recommended flow rate?
A. 2 L/min
B. 6 L/min
C. 10 L/min
D. 15 L/min
Answer: B
Rationale: The maximum flow rate for a nasal cannula is typically 6 L/min; rates higher
than this can dry out the mucosa and do not significantly increase inspired oxygen
concentration.
,3. What is the primary purpose of using an incentive spirometer?
A. To measure forced expiratory volume
B. To deliver bronchodilators into the lungs
C. To promote deep breathing and prevent atelectasis
D. To decrease the work of breathing during exercise
Answer: C
Rationale: Incentive spirometry encourages voluntary deep breathing by providing visual
feedback, which helps expand alveoli and prevent lung collapse (atelectasis).
4. A patient with a history of COPD is receiving oxygen. Why must the nurse be
cautious about high-flow oxygen delivery?
A. It may suppress the respiratory drive
B. It could lead to pneumothorax
C. It may cause oxygen toxicity
D. It can cause metabolic alkalosis
Answer: A
Rationale: In some COPD patients, the respiratory drive is triggered by low oxygen levels
(hypoxic drive) rather than high CO2; too much oxygen can suppress this drive.
5. Which nursing intervention is most effective for a patient with thick,
tenacious secretions?
A. Administering cough suppressants
B. Encouraging fluid intake to 2500 mL/day
C. Performing tracheal suctioning every hour
D. Placing the patient in a supine position
Answer: B
Rationale: Hydration helps liquefy secretions, making them easier to expectorate.
Suppressants are contraindicated if secretions need to be cleared.
, 6. The nurse observes a patient’s breathing pattern is deep and rapid, often
associated with metabolic acidosis. This is known as:
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C. Biot’s respirations
D. Apnea
Answer: A
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that the body uses to blow off
excess CO2 to compensate for metabolic acidosis.
7. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of hypokalemia?
A. Positive Chvostek’s sign
B. Peaked T waves on an ECG
C. Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
D. Hypertension and bounding pulses
Answer: C
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) affects muscle contraction and cardiac
conduction, leading to weakness and arrhythmias. Peaked T waves are seen in
hyperkalemia.
8. A patient has an IV site that is cool to the touch, swollen, and painful. The
nurse suspects:
A. Phlebitis
B. Thrombosis
C. Infection
D. Infiltration
Answer: D
Rationale: Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into surrounding tissue, causing coolness,
swelling, and discomfort. Phlebitis is characterized by heat and redness.
