NR 224 Fundamentals of Nursing Final Exam Practice 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. A nurse is assessing a patient’s radial pulse and determines the rhythm is
irregular. What is the most appropriate next action?
A. Document the finding and reassess in 4 hours.
B. Calculate the pulse deficit using the carotid pulse.
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
D. Assess the apical pulse for one full minute.
Answer: D
Rationale: When a peripheral pulse is irregular, the nurse should assess the apical pulse
for one full minute to ensure an accurate heart rate measurement.
2. Which stage of the nursing process involves the nurse determining if patient-
centered goals have been met?
A. Assessment
B. Evaluation
C. Implementation
D. Planning
Answer: B
Rationale: Evaluation is the step where the nurse compares the patient’s current status
with the desired outcomes to determine if goals were achieved.
,3. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile procedure. Which action would
violate the principles of surgical asepsis?
A. Keeping sterile gloved hands above the waist level.
B. Opening the outer wrapper of a sterile kit away from the body.
C. Dropping sterile items onto the center of the sterile field.
D. Turning one’s back to the sterile field while reaching for supplies.
Answer: D
Rationale: A sterile field should never be left unattended or have the nurse’s back turned
to it, as sterility cannot be guaranteed if the field is out of sight.
4. In the RACE acronym for fire safety, what does the letter ‘C’ stand for?
A. Contain the fire
B. Carry out patients
C. Call for help
D. Clear the hallway
Answer: A
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate. ‘C’
represents containing the fire by closing doors and windows.
5. A patient is at risk for orthostatic hypotension. Which intervention should the
nurse implement?
A. Encourage the patient to stand up quickly to improve circulation.
B. Administer a sedative before the patient attempts to walk.
C. Restrict fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
D. Dangle the patient’s legs over the side of the bed before standing.
Answer: D
Rationale: Dangling the legs allows the body to adjust to postural changes and helps
prevent dizziness or fainting when standing up.
, 6. Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient diagnosed with
Tuberculosis (TB)?
A. Contact precautions
B. Airborne precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Protective environment
Answer: B
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via small droplets that remain suspended in the air,
requiring airborne precautions, including an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient with a Stage 2 pressure injury. What is the
clinical manifestation of this stage?
A. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis or dermis.
B. Full-thickness skin loss with visible adipose tissue.
C. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin.
D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone or muscle.
Answer: A
Rationale: Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness loss of the dermis, often
appearing as a shallow open ulcer or a ruptured blister.
8. When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, which position is most
appropriate to prevent aspiration?
A. Side-lying (Lateral) position
B. Supine position
C. High-Fowler’s position
D. Trendelenburg position
Answer: A
Rationale: The side-lying position allows secretions to drain out of the mouth rather than
back into the pharynx, reducing the risk of aspiration.
|Chamberlain College
1. A nurse is assessing a patient’s radial pulse and determines the rhythm is
irregular. What is the most appropriate next action?
A. Document the finding and reassess in 4 hours.
B. Calculate the pulse deficit using the carotid pulse.
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
D. Assess the apical pulse for one full minute.
Answer: D
Rationale: When a peripheral pulse is irregular, the nurse should assess the apical pulse
for one full minute to ensure an accurate heart rate measurement.
2. Which stage of the nursing process involves the nurse determining if patient-
centered goals have been met?
A. Assessment
B. Evaluation
C. Implementation
D. Planning
Answer: B
Rationale: Evaluation is the step where the nurse compares the patient’s current status
with the desired outcomes to determine if goals were achieved.
,3. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile procedure. Which action would
violate the principles of surgical asepsis?
A. Keeping sterile gloved hands above the waist level.
B. Opening the outer wrapper of a sterile kit away from the body.
C. Dropping sterile items onto the center of the sterile field.
D. Turning one’s back to the sterile field while reaching for supplies.
Answer: D
Rationale: A sterile field should never be left unattended or have the nurse’s back turned
to it, as sterility cannot be guaranteed if the field is out of sight.
4. In the RACE acronym for fire safety, what does the letter ‘C’ stand for?
A. Contain the fire
B. Carry out patients
C. Call for help
D. Clear the hallway
Answer: A
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate. ‘C’
represents containing the fire by closing doors and windows.
5. A patient is at risk for orthostatic hypotension. Which intervention should the
nurse implement?
A. Encourage the patient to stand up quickly to improve circulation.
B. Administer a sedative before the patient attempts to walk.
C. Restrict fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
D. Dangle the patient’s legs over the side of the bed before standing.
Answer: D
Rationale: Dangling the legs allows the body to adjust to postural changes and helps
prevent dizziness or fainting when standing up.
, 6. Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient diagnosed with
Tuberculosis (TB)?
A. Contact precautions
B. Airborne precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Protective environment
Answer: B
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via small droplets that remain suspended in the air,
requiring airborne precautions, including an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room.
7. A nurse is caring for a patient with a Stage 2 pressure injury. What is the
clinical manifestation of this stage?
A. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis or dermis.
B. Full-thickness skin loss with visible adipose tissue.
C. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin.
D. Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone or muscle.
Answer: A
Rationale: Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness loss of the dermis, often
appearing as a shallow open ulcer or a ruptured blister.
8. When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, which position is most
appropriate to prevent aspiration?
A. Side-lying (Lateral) position
B. Supine position
C. High-Fowler’s position
D. Trendelenburg position
Answer: A
Rationale: The side-lying position allows secretions to drain out of the mouth rather than
back into the pharynx, reducing the risk of aspiration.
