NR 226 Adult Health I Exam 2 Practice Questions 2026 |Chamberlain
College
1. A nurse is assessing a patient with a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Which of
the following findings should the nurse expect on the ECG?
A. Presence of U waves
B. Widened QRS complex
C. Tall, peaked T waves
D. Shortened QT interval
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) often causes the development of U
waves and ST-segment depression on an ECG.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a patient at risk for when receiving multiple
units of banked blood rapidly?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: A
Rationale: Banked blood contains citrate to prevent clotting; citrate binds to calcium,
potentially causing hypocalcemia if many units are infused quickly.
,3. A patient’s ABG results are: pH 7.32, PaCO2 50 mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L.
How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Respiratory Alkalosis
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (< 7.35) indicating acidosis. The PaCO2 is high (> 45 mmHg)
which matches the acidic pH, while the HCO3 is normal, indicating respiratory acidosis.
4. In the preoperative setting, what is the primary responsibility of the nurse
regarding informed consent?
A. Explaining the risks and benefits of the procedure
B. Obtaining the surgical signature
C. Deciding if the client is competent
D. Witnessing the client’s signature
Answer: D
Rationale: The surgeon is responsible for explaining the procedure; the nurse’s role is to
witness that the patient is signing the form voluntarily and appears competent.
5. Which stage of pressure injury is characterized by partial-thickness loss of
dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss with exposed
dermis. Stage 3 involves full-thickness skin loss to subcutaneous fat.
, 6. A patient is prescribed 0.9% Normal Saline. What type of intravenous solution
is this considered?
A. Isotonic
B. Hypertonic
C. Hypotonic
D. Colloid
Answer: A
Rationale: 0.9% NaCl (Normal Saline) is an isotonic solution as it has the same osmolality
as body fluids.
7. When assessing a patient for hypocalcemia, the nurse taps the patient’s facial
nerve and observes a twitch. What is this sign called?
A. Trousseau’s sign
B. Chvostek’s sign
C. Homans’ sign
D. Cullen’s sign
Answer: B
Rationale: Chvostek’s sign is an abnormal reaction to the stimulation of the facial nerve,
indicating hypocalcemia.
8. A nurse is caring for a patient who is 1 day post-operative. Which
intervention is most effective for preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Early ambulation
B. Massaging the calves
C. Restricting fluids
D. Placing pillows under the knees
Answer: A
Rationale: Early ambulation and leg exercises are the most effective ways to prevent
venous stasis and subsequent DVT formation.
College
1. A nurse is assessing a patient with a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. Which of
the following findings should the nurse expect on the ECG?
A. Presence of U waves
B. Widened QRS complex
C. Tall, peaked T waves
D. Shortened QT interval
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) often causes the development of U
waves and ST-segment depression on an ECG.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a patient at risk for when receiving multiple
units of banked blood rapidly?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypophosphatemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: A
Rationale: Banked blood contains citrate to prevent clotting; citrate binds to calcium,
potentially causing hypocalcemia if many units are infused quickly.
,3. A patient’s ABG results are: pH 7.32, PaCO2 50 mmHg, and HCO3 24 mEq/L.
How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Respiratory Alkalosis
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (< 7.35) indicating acidosis. The PaCO2 is high (> 45 mmHg)
which matches the acidic pH, while the HCO3 is normal, indicating respiratory acidosis.
4. In the preoperative setting, what is the primary responsibility of the nurse
regarding informed consent?
A. Explaining the risks and benefits of the procedure
B. Obtaining the surgical signature
C. Deciding if the client is competent
D. Witnessing the client’s signature
Answer: D
Rationale: The surgeon is responsible for explaining the procedure; the nurse’s role is to
witness that the patient is signing the form voluntarily and appears competent.
5. Which stage of pressure injury is characterized by partial-thickness loss of
dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss with exposed
dermis. Stage 3 involves full-thickness skin loss to subcutaneous fat.
, 6. A patient is prescribed 0.9% Normal Saline. What type of intravenous solution
is this considered?
A. Isotonic
B. Hypertonic
C. Hypotonic
D. Colloid
Answer: A
Rationale: 0.9% NaCl (Normal Saline) is an isotonic solution as it has the same osmolality
as body fluids.
7. When assessing a patient for hypocalcemia, the nurse taps the patient’s facial
nerve and observes a twitch. What is this sign called?
A. Trousseau’s sign
B. Chvostek’s sign
C. Homans’ sign
D. Cullen’s sign
Answer: B
Rationale: Chvostek’s sign is an abnormal reaction to the stimulation of the facial nerve,
indicating hypocalcemia.
8. A nurse is caring for a patient who is 1 day post-operative. Which
intervention is most effective for preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A. Early ambulation
B. Massaging the calves
C. Restricting fluids
D. Placing pillows under the knees
Answer: A
Rationale: Early ambulation and leg exercises are the most effective ways to prevent
venous stasis and subsequent DVT formation.
