NR 226 Adult Health I Exam 8 Study Guide 2026 |Chamberlain College
1. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Dependent edema
C. Crackles in the lungs
D. Ascites
Answer: C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary veins,
leading to pulmonary congestion and crackles. Options A, B, and D are signs of right-sided
heart failure.
2. Which laboratory value is most specific for diagnosing a myocardial
infarction?
A. Creatine kinase (CK)
B. Myoglobin
C. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
D. Troponin T
Answer: D
Rationale: Troponin T and I are highly specific markers for myocardial injury. BNP is used
for heart failure, and CK/myoglobin are less specific.
,3. A client is prescribed lisinopril. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the
client to report immediately?
A. Nasal congestion
B. Increased appetite
C. Drowsiness
D. Dry cough
Answer: D
Rationale: A dry, persistent cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril
due to the accumulation of bradykinin.
4. A patient has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which EKG change is most
likely?
A. Peaked T waves
B. ST-segment depression
C. Prominent U waves
D. Inverted P waves
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ > 5.0) typically causes peaked T waves and widened QRS
complexes.
5. A client with a history of angina is admitted. Which of the following describes
stable angina?
A. Pain occurring at rest without provocation
B. Pain that is unresponsive to nitrates
C. Pain that increases in frequency and severity
D. Pain relieved by rest and nitroglycerin
Answer: D
Rationale: Stable angina is predictable and occurs with exertion, usually relieved by rest or
nitroglycerin.
, 6. The nurse is administering Digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which
assessment finding requires holding the medication?
A. Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
B. Respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute
C. Heart rate 52 beats per minute
D. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin should be held if the apical pulse is less than 60 bpm in adults to
prevent further bradycardia.
7. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for Coronary Artery Disease
(CAD)?
A. Family history
B. Age
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Gender
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperlipidemia, smoking, and hypertension are modifiable. Age, gender, and
family history are non-modifiable.
8. A client with Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD) reports pain while walking that
is relieved by rest. This is known as:
A. Dependent rubor
B. Paresthesia
C. Rest pain
D. Intermittent claudication
Answer: D
Rationale: Intermittent claudication is ischemic muscle pain that is caused by a constant
level of exercise and resolves within 10 minutes of rest.
1. A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Dependent edema
C. Crackles in the lungs
D. Ascites
Answer: C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary veins,
leading to pulmonary congestion and crackles. Options A, B, and D are signs of right-sided
heart failure.
2. Which laboratory value is most specific for diagnosing a myocardial
infarction?
A. Creatine kinase (CK)
B. Myoglobin
C. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
D. Troponin T
Answer: D
Rationale: Troponin T and I are highly specific markers for myocardial injury. BNP is used
for heart failure, and CK/myoglobin are less specific.
,3. A client is prescribed lisinopril. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the
client to report immediately?
A. Nasal congestion
B. Increased appetite
C. Drowsiness
D. Dry cough
Answer: D
Rationale: A dry, persistent cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril
due to the accumulation of bradykinin.
4. A patient has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which EKG change is most
likely?
A. Peaked T waves
B. ST-segment depression
C. Prominent U waves
D. Inverted P waves
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (K+ > 5.0) typically causes peaked T waves and widened QRS
complexes.
5. A client with a history of angina is admitted. Which of the following describes
stable angina?
A. Pain occurring at rest without provocation
B. Pain that is unresponsive to nitrates
C. Pain that increases in frequency and severity
D. Pain relieved by rest and nitroglycerin
Answer: D
Rationale: Stable angina is predictable and occurs with exertion, usually relieved by rest or
nitroglycerin.
, 6. The nurse is administering Digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which
assessment finding requires holding the medication?
A. Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
B. Respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute
C. Heart rate 52 beats per minute
D. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin should be held if the apical pulse is less than 60 bpm in adults to
prevent further bradycardia.
7. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for Coronary Artery Disease
(CAD)?
A. Family history
B. Age
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Gender
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperlipidemia, smoking, and hypertension are modifiable. Age, gender, and
family history are non-modifiable.
8. A client with Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD) reports pain while walking that
is relieved by rest. This is known as:
A. Dependent rubor
B. Paresthesia
C. Rest pain
D. Intermittent claudication
Answer: D
Rationale: Intermittent claudication is ischemic muscle pain that is caused by a constant
level of exercise and resolves within 10 minutes of rest.
