NRNP 6552 MIDTERM EXAM 2026 | Advanced Nurse Practice
in Reproductive Health Care | All 100 Questions & Correct
Answers | Walden University | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Female Reproductive Anatomy & Physiology (12 Questions)
Q1: A 28-year-old patient asks about her menstrual cycle. She reports cycles every 26
days, lasting 4 days with moderate flow requiring 4-5 regular pads daily. Which
statement about her cycle is MOST accurate?
A. Her cycle is abnormally short and requires evaluation
B. Her cycle falls within normal parameters [CORRECT]
C. Her menstrual blood loss exceeds normal limits
D. She likely has anovulatory cycles
Rationale: For the NRNP6552 midterm, remember that normal menstrual cycles range
from 21-35 days, last 2-7 days, with blood loss of 20-80 mL. This patient's 26-day cycle,
4-day duration, and moderate flow requiring 4-5 pads daily all fall well within normal
limits. A common midterm trap is thinking cycles must be exactly 28 days – there's
actually quite a bit of normal variation.
,Correct Answer: B
Q2: During the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, which hormone is primarily
responsible for stimulating follicular development and estradiol production?
A. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) [CORRECT]
C. Progesterone
D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
Rationale: For the NRNP6552 midterm, remember that FSH is the key driver of follicular
recruitment and growth during the follicular phase, stimulating granulosa cells to
produce estradiol. As estradiol rises, it exerts negative feedback on FSH initially, then
switches to positive feedback triggering the LH surge. That's right because according to
the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis, GnRH pulses from the hypothalamus stimulate
FSH and LH release, but FSH specifically drives follicular development.
Correct Answer: B
,Q3: A 12-year-old girl presents with breast budding (Tanner stage 2) and sparse pubic
hair. Her mother is concerned about early puberty. Which statement about pubertal
development is MOST accurate?
A. Breast development typically follows pubic hair development
B. Thelarche (breast development) usually precedes adrenarche (pubic hair) and is the
first sign of puberty [CORRECT]
C. Menarche typically occurs within 3 months of breast budding
D. Adrenarche indicates ovarian maturation
Rationale: For the NRNP6552 midterm, remember that thelarche (breast budding,
Tanner stage 2) is typically the first visible sign of puberty, occurring on average around
age 10-11, followed by adrenarche (pubic/axillary hair) about 6-12 months later.
Menarche usually occurs about 2-2.5 years after thelarche, not within months. A
common midterm trap is confusing the order of pubertal events or thinking pubic hair
comes first.
Correct Answer: B
Q4: A 52-year-old patient has not had a menstrual period for 14 months. She reports hot
flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. According to STRAW+10 staging, which
stage is she in?
, A. Late menopausal transition
B. Early postmenopause [CORRECT]
C. Late postmenopause
D. Perimenopause
Rationale: For the NRNP6552 midterm, remember that STRAW+10 defines menopause
as 12 months of amenorrhea with no pathological cause, and early postmenopause is
the first 5 years after the final menstrual period (FMP). This patient at 14 months
post-FMP with vasomotor symptoms is in early postmenopause. Late postmenopause
begins at 5+ years after FMP. A common midterm trap is using "perimenopause" as a
formal STRAW stage – it's a lay term, while STRAW uses "menopausal transition."
Correct Answer: B
Q5: Which hormone exerts NEGATIVE feedback on FSH secretion during the early
follicular phase?
A. Estradiol
B. Progesterone
C. Inhibin B [CORRECT]
in Reproductive Health Care | All 100 Questions & Correct
Answers | Walden University | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Female Reproductive Anatomy & Physiology (12 Questions)
Q1: A 28-year-old patient asks about her menstrual cycle. She reports cycles every 26
days, lasting 4 days with moderate flow requiring 4-5 regular pads daily. Which
statement about her cycle is MOST accurate?
A. Her cycle is abnormally short and requires evaluation
B. Her cycle falls within normal parameters [CORRECT]
C. Her menstrual blood loss exceeds normal limits
D. She likely has anovulatory cycles
Rationale: For the NRNP6552 midterm, remember that normal menstrual cycles range
from 21-35 days, last 2-7 days, with blood loss of 20-80 mL. This patient's 26-day cycle,
4-day duration, and moderate flow requiring 4-5 pads daily all fall well within normal
limits. A common midterm trap is thinking cycles must be exactly 28 days – there's
actually quite a bit of normal variation.
,Correct Answer: B
Q2: During the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, which hormone is primarily
responsible for stimulating follicular development and estradiol production?
A. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) [CORRECT]
C. Progesterone
D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
Rationale: For the NRNP6552 midterm, remember that FSH is the key driver of follicular
recruitment and growth during the follicular phase, stimulating granulosa cells to
produce estradiol. As estradiol rises, it exerts negative feedback on FSH initially, then
switches to positive feedback triggering the LH surge. That's right because according to
the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis, GnRH pulses from the hypothalamus stimulate
FSH and LH release, but FSH specifically drives follicular development.
Correct Answer: B
,Q3: A 12-year-old girl presents with breast budding (Tanner stage 2) and sparse pubic
hair. Her mother is concerned about early puberty. Which statement about pubertal
development is MOST accurate?
A. Breast development typically follows pubic hair development
B. Thelarche (breast development) usually precedes adrenarche (pubic hair) and is the
first sign of puberty [CORRECT]
C. Menarche typically occurs within 3 months of breast budding
D. Adrenarche indicates ovarian maturation
Rationale: For the NRNP6552 midterm, remember that thelarche (breast budding,
Tanner stage 2) is typically the first visible sign of puberty, occurring on average around
age 10-11, followed by adrenarche (pubic/axillary hair) about 6-12 months later.
Menarche usually occurs about 2-2.5 years after thelarche, not within months. A
common midterm trap is confusing the order of pubertal events or thinking pubic hair
comes first.
Correct Answer: B
Q4: A 52-year-old patient has not had a menstrual period for 14 months. She reports hot
flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. According to STRAW+10 staging, which
stage is she in?
, A. Late menopausal transition
B. Early postmenopause [CORRECT]
C. Late postmenopause
D. Perimenopause
Rationale: For the NRNP6552 midterm, remember that STRAW+10 defines menopause
as 12 months of amenorrhea with no pathological cause, and early postmenopause is
the first 5 years after the final menstrual period (FMP). This patient at 14 months
post-FMP with vasomotor symptoms is in early postmenopause. Late postmenopause
begins at 5+ years after FMP. A common midterm trap is using "perimenopause" as a
formal STRAW stage – it's a lay term, while STRAW uses "menopausal transition."
Correct Answer: B
Q5: Which hormone exerts NEGATIVE feedback on FSH secretion during the early
follicular phase?
A. Estradiol
B. Progesterone
C. Inhibin B [CORRECT]
