NR 305 Health Assessment Exam 7: HEENT, Musculoskeletal, and
Neurological Assessment 2026 |Chamberlain College
1. A nurse is assessing a patient’s pupillary light reflex. Which of the following is
an expected normal finding?
A. Dilation of the pupil when a light is shone into it.
B. The pupils remain fixed and non-reactive to light.
C. Only the eye receiving the light constricts while the other remains unchanged.
D. Constriction of the pupil in the eye receiving the light and the opposite eye.
Answer: D
Rationale: A normal pupillary light reflex includes both a direct response (constriction of
the eye being tested) and a consensual response (simultaneous constriction of the other
eye).
2. Which cranial nerve is being tested when the nurse asks the patient to
identify smells such as coffee or peppermint?
A. Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
B. Cranial Nerve II (Optic)
C. Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory)
D. Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
Answer: C
Rationale: Cranial Nerve I is the Olfactory nerve, responsible for the sense of smell.
,3. During a musculoskeletal exam, the nurse notes a ‘grating’ sound when the
patient moves their knee. This is documented as:
A. Articulation
B. Effusion
C. Crepitus
D. Subluxation
Answer: C
Rationale: Crepitus is a dry, crackling, or grating sound or sensation produced by friction
between bone and cartilage or fractured parts of a bone.
4. To test the function of Cranial Nerve III, IV, and VI, the nurse should assess
which of the following?
A. Visual acuity using a Snellen chart.
B. The six cardinal fields of gaze.
C. The patient’s ability to swallow.
D. Facial symmetry when smiling.
Answer: B
Rationale: Cranial nerves III (Oculomotor), IV (Trochlear), and VI (Abducens) control the
extraocular muscles and are tested together by observing eye movement through the six
cardinal fields of gaze.
5. When assessing the tympanic membrane with an otoscope, which color
indicates a healthy, normal ear?
A. Yellow-amber
B. Bright red
C. Pearly gray
D. Opaque white
Answer: C
Rationale: A healthy tympanic membrane is translucent and pearly gray in color.
, 6. A patient is asked to stand with feet together and eyes closed. They begin to
sway and lose their balance. This is a positive:
A. Romberg test
B. Babinski sign
C. Phalen’s test
D. Weber test
Answer: A
Rationale: The Romberg test assesses cerebellar function and balance; a positive result is
when the patient loses balance with eyes closed.
7. Which Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score would indicate a patient is in a deep
coma?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 7
D. 3
Answer: D
Rationale: A GCS score of 3 is the lowest possible score and indicates deep coma or death;
15 is a fully alert patient.
8. When testing a patient’s visual acuity using a Snellen chart, the patient
records a result of 20/40. This means:
A. The patient can see at 40 feet what a normal person sees at 20 feet.
B. The patient’s vision is twice as good as normal.
C. The patient can see at 20 feet what a normal person sees at 40 feet.
D. The patient is legally blind.
Answer: C
Neurological Assessment 2026 |Chamberlain College
1. A nurse is assessing a patient’s pupillary light reflex. Which of the following is
an expected normal finding?
A. Dilation of the pupil when a light is shone into it.
B. The pupils remain fixed and non-reactive to light.
C. Only the eye receiving the light constricts while the other remains unchanged.
D. Constriction of the pupil in the eye receiving the light and the opposite eye.
Answer: D
Rationale: A normal pupillary light reflex includes both a direct response (constriction of
the eye being tested) and a consensual response (simultaneous constriction of the other
eye).
2. Which cranial nerve is being tested when the nurse asks the patient to
identify smells such as coffee or peppermint?
A. Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
B. Cranial Nerve II (Optic)
C. Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory)
D. Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
Answer: C
Rationale: Cranial Nerve I is the Olfactory nerve, responsible for the sense of smell.
,3. During a musculoskeletal exam, the nurse notes a ‘grating’ sound when the
patient moves their knee. This is documented as:
A. Articulation
B. Effusion
C. Crepitus
D. Subluxation
Answer: C
Rationale: Crepitus is a dry, crackling, or grating sound or sensation produced by friction
between bone and cartilage or fractured parts of a bone.
4. To test the function of Cranial Nerve III, IV, and VI, the nurse should assess
which of the following?
A. Visual acuity using a Snellen chart.
B. The six cardinal fields of gaze.
C. The patient’s ability to swallow.
D. Facial symmetry when smiling.
Answer: B
Rationale: Cranial nerves III (Oculomotor), IV (Trochlear), and VI (Abducens) control the
extraocular muscles and are tested together by observing eye movement through the six
cardinal fields of gaze.
5. When assessing the tympanic membrane with an otoscope, which color
indicates a healthy, normal ear?
A. Yellow-amber
B. Bright red
C. Pearly gray
D. Opaque white
Answer: C
Rationale: A healthy tympanic membrane is translucent and pearly gray in color.
, 6. A patient is asked to stand with feet together and eyes closed. They begin to
sway and lose their balance. This is a positive:
A. Romberg test
B. Babinski sign
C. Phalen’s test
D. Weber test
Answer: A
Rationale: The Romberg test assesses cerebellar function and balance; a positive result is
when the patient loses balance with eyes closed.
7. Which Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score would indicate a patient is in a deep
coma?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 7
D. 3
Answer: D
Rationale: A GCS score of 3 is the lowest possible score and indicates deep coma or death;
15 is a fully alert patient.
8. When testing a patient’s visual acuity using a Snellen chart, the patient
records a result of 20/40. This means:
A. The patient can see at 40 feet what a normal person sees at 20 feet.
B. The patient’s vision is twice as good as normal.
C. The patient can see at 20 feet what a normal person sees at 40 feet.
D. The patient is legally blind.
Answer: C
