NR 305 Health Assessment Exam 8 Practice Questions 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. Which sequence should the nurse follow when performing an abdominal
assessment?
A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
C. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
D. Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation, Inspection
Answer: C
Rationale: In abdominal assessment, auscultation is performed before percussion and
palpation to avoid stimulating bowel sounds or altering the findings.
2. The first heart sound (S1) is produced by the closure of which valves?
A. Aortic and Pulmonic
B. Tricuspid and Pulmonic
C. Mitral and Aortic
D. Mitral and Tricuspid
Answer: D
Rationale: S1 occurs with the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (mitral and
tricuspid) at the start of systole.
,3. A nurse notes a patient has a ‘swayback’ appearance with an inward
curvature of the lumbar spine. This is documented as:
A. Scoliosis
B. Kyphosis
C. Ankylosis
D. Lordosis
Answer: D
Rationale: Lordosis is an exaggerated inward curvature of the lumbar spine, often seen in
pregnancy or obesity.
4. When assessing a patient’s visual acuity using a Snellen chart, the patient
records 20/50. What does this mean?
A. The patient can read at 50 feet what a normal person reads at 20 feet.
B. The patient was standing 50 feet away from the chart.
C. The patient’s vision is better than normal.
D. The patient can read at 20 feet what a normal person reads at 50 feet.
Answer: D
Rationale: The numerator (20) is the distance from the chart. The denominator (50) is the
distance at which a normal eye could read that line.
5. To assess for jaundice in a dark-skinned patient, where is the most reliable
place to look?
A. The palms of the hands
B. The sclera and hard palate
C. The nail beds
D. The abdomen
Answer: B
Rationale: Jaundice is most easily detected in the sclera and the hard palate in individuals
with dark skin pigmentation.
, 6. The nurse is testing a patient’s Cranial Nerve XI (Spinal Accessory). What
action should the patient perform?
A. Stick out the tongue
B. Smile and frown
C. Follow a light with the eyes
D. Shrug the shoulders against resistance
Answer: D
Rationale: CN XI is tested by checking the strength of the trapezius (shrugging) and
sternocleidomastoid muscles.
7. A 3+ pitting edema is characterized by which of the following?
A. Deep pitting, indentation remains for a short time
B. Mild pitting, slight indentation, no perceptible swelling
C. Very deep pitting, indentation lasts a long time
D. No pitting, but visible swelling
Answer: A
Rationale: 3+ edema is deep pitting (approx 6mm) where the indentation remains for a
short time after pressure is released.
8. What is the correct technique for using an otoscope on an adult patient?
A. Pull the pinna down and back
B. Pull the pinna straight out
C. Pull the pinna up and back
D. Push the tragus inward
Answer: C
Rationale: In adults, the ear canal is straightened by pulling the pinna up and back; down
and back is for infants/young children.
|Chamberlain College
1. Which sequence should the nurse follow when performing an abdominal
assessment?
A. Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B. Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
C. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
D. Percussion, Palpation, Auscultation, Inspection
Answer: C
Rationale: In abdominal assessment, auscultation is performed before percussion and
palpation to avoid stimulating bowel sounds or altering the findings.
2. The first heart sound (S1) is produced by the closure of which valves?
A. Aortic and Pulmonic
B. Tricuspid and Pulmonic
C. Mitral and Aortic
D. Mitral and Tricuspid
Answer: D
Rationale: S1 occurs with the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (mitral and
tricuspid) at the start of systole.
,3. A nurse notes a patient has a ‘swayback’ appearance with an inward
curvature of the lumbar spine. This is documented as:
A. Scoliosis
B. Kyphosis
C. Ankylosis
D. Lordosis
Answer: D
Rationale: Lordosis is an exaggerated inward curvature of the lumbar spine, often seen in
pregnancy or obesity.
4. When assessing a patient’s visual acuity using a Snellen chart, the patient
records 20/50. What does this mean?
A. The patient can read at 50 feet what a normal person reads at 20 feet.
B. The patient was standing 50 feet away from the chart.
C. The patient’s vision is better than normal.
D. The patient can read at 20 feet what a normal person reads at 50 feet.
Answer: D
Rationale: The numerator (20) is the distance from the chart. The denominator (50) is the
distance at which a normal eye could read that line.
5. To assess for jaundice in a dark-skinned patient, where is the most reliable
place to look?
A. The palms of the hands
B. The sclera and hard palate
C. The nail beds
D. The abdomen
Answer: B
Rationale: Jaundice is most easily detected in the sclera and the hard palate in individuals
with dark skin pigmentation.
, 6. The nurse is testing a patient’s Cranial Nerve XI (Spinal Accessory). What
action should the patient perform?
A. Stick out the tongue
B. Smile and frown
C. Follow a light with the eyes
D. Shrug the shoulders against resistance
Answer: D
Rationale: CN XI is tested by checking the strength of the trapezius (shrugging) and
sternocleidomastoid muscles.
7. A 3+ pitting edema is characterized by which of the following?
A. Deep pitting, indentation remains for a short time
B. Mild pitting, slight indentation, no perceptible swelling
C. Very deep pitting, indentation lasts a long time
D. No pitting, but visible swelling
Answer: A
Rationale: 3+ edema is deep pitting (approx 6mm) where the indentation remains for a
short time after pressure is released.
8. What is the correct technique for using an otoscope on an adult patient?
A. Pull the pinna down and back
B. Pull the pinna straight out
C. Pull the pinna up and back
D. Push the tragus inward
Answer: C
Rationale: In adults, the ear canal is straightened by pulling the pinna up and back; down
and back is for infants/young children.
